Q.1) In the following questions, out Of the four alternatives.

Choose the one "lich best expresses the

meaning of the given word.
Allure
[A] Extol
[B] Excite
[C] Entice
[D] Elicit

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Allure and entice both denote provoking someone to do something through (often
false or exaggerated) promises or persuasion.

Q.2) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given.
Parsimony
[A] Expenditure
[B] Bankruptcy
[C] Bribery
[D] Miserliness

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Parsimony means extreme unwillingness to spend money. Option (d) expresses the
correct meaning.
a strong wish to have money and not to spend it: Bear in mind that miserliness, cowardice, and
greed ruin a person.

Q.3) In the Following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Unitary
[A] Single
[B] Triple
[C] Multiple
[D] Double

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The word Unitary (Adjective) means: single: forming one unit. Multiple= many in
number

Q.4) In the Following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Adulteration
[A] Purification
[B] Normalization
[C] Rejuvenation
[D] Consternation

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word Adulteration (Noun) means: making impure by mixing; contamination.
The word Purification (Noun) means: making something pure by removing substances that are dirty,
harmful.
Q.5) In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding
to it.
turn turtle
[A] slow like a turtle
[B] turn upside down
[C] over-turn
[D] a game turtles play

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Idiom Turn turtle- to turn upside down.

Q.6) In thefollowing Five Questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the down.
To put his foot down.
[A] To act firmly
[B] Resign
[C] Ready to work
[D] Concede

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Phrase 'to put one's foot down' means to act firmly or stand firmly.

Q.7) In the following Five Questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the down.
Have a foot in the ground
[A] be close to death
[B] have no interest in life
[C] have an incurable disease
[D] be afraid to nest

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Idiom 'Have a foot in the grave' means to be on the verge of death/ to be almost dead.

Q.8) In the following Five Questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the down.
A hornet's nest.
[A] an unpleasant situation
[B] a dilemma
[C] a comfortable position
[D] among thorns

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Idiom 'hornet's nest' means a dangerous or complicated situation

Q.9) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given words/sentence.
Science regarding principles of classification.
[A] Taxidermy
[B] Taxonomy
[C] Toxicology
[D] Classicology

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Taxonomy
Q.10) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given words/sentence.
A political leader appealing to popular desires and prejudices
[A] Dictator
[B] Tyrant
[C] Popularist
[D] Demagogue

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Demagogue refers to a political leader who seeks support by appealing to popular
desires and prejudices rather than by using rational argument.

Q.11) Be just _____ fear nothing.

[A] but
[B] While
[C] and
[D] until

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'and‘ is the most appropriate word.

Q.12) He came two hours _______ us.

[A] before
[B] ago
[C] above
[D] ahead

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: ‗before' is the most appropriate word.

Q.13) Sunaina said, “She is sick ______ the whole business."

[A] by
[B] of
[C] for
[D] with

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'of is the most appropriate word

Q.14) He was quite ________when he heard what had happened.

[A] laughing
[B] amused
[C] lovable
[D] beautiful

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'amused‘ is the most appropriate word.

Q.15) As soon as this workshop is over, I am going to ______every duty and go on a holiday.
[A] sidetrack
[B] abandon
[C] overthrow
[D] close down

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: As soon as this workshop is over, I am going to abandon every duty and go on a
holiday.

Q.16) My mother asked me when . . . . . . have a glass of milk.

[A] I will
[B] I shall
[C] I would
[D] Would I

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: My mother asked me when I would have a glass of milk.

Q.17) To grease the palm means . . . . . . .

[A] To smooth
[B] To bribe
[C] To win
[D] To make up mind

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: To grease the palm --- to bribe someone.

Q.18) . . . . . . you ever . . . . . . . Manali?

[A] Have , visited
[B] Had , visited
[C] Did , visit
[D] Will , be visiting

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Have you ever visited Manali?

Q.19) In my busy office schedule, I haven’t got . . . . . . . time for playing.

[A] no
[B] much
[C] little
[D] few

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In my busy office schedule, I haven’t got much time for playing.

Q.20) It . . . . . . heavily, so I will take an umbrella with me.

[A] was raining
[B] is raining
[C] has rained
[D] rained

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: It is raining heavily, so I will take an umbrella with me.

Q.21) Human nature . . . . . . . from person to person.

[A] vary
[B] very
[C] varies
[D] veries

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Human nature varies from person to person.

Q.22) He . . . . . . . his fingers by interfering in his neighbour’s affairs.

[A] burnt
[B] cut
[C] pressed
[D] hurt

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: He burnt his fingers by interfering in his neighbour’s affairs.

Q.23) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct / Indirect form. Out of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect / Direct form
and mark.
The shopkeeper told me to be kind enough to pay for the tape-recorder in cash.
[A] The shopkeeper said to me, "Will you pay for the tar*- recorder kindly in cash.‖
[B] The shopkeeper said, "Be kind enough to pay for the tape-recorder in cash."
[C] The shopkeeper exclaimed tome, "Be kind enough to pay for the tape-recorder in cash!"
[D] The shopkeeper ordered me, "Please be kind enough to pay for the tape recorder in cash.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The shopkeeper said, "Be kind enough to pay for the tape-recorder in cash."

Q.24) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct / Indirect form. Out of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect / Direct form
and mark.
She asked her brother if he could give her some money then.
[A] She said to her brother, "Could I give you some money now?"
[B] She said to her brother, "Can give me some money then?"
[C] She said to her brother, "Can you give me some money now?"
[D] She asked her brother, "Give me some money now"

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: She said to her brother, "Can you give me some money now?"

Q.25) Narration Change

He said to his father, "Please increase my pocket-money."
[A] He told his father, "Please increase the pocket-money"
[B] He pleaded his father to please increase my pocket money.
[C] He requested his father to increase his pocket-money.
[D] He asked his father to increase his pocket-money.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: He requested his father to increase his pocket-money

Q.26) The nature of Indus Valley Civilization was

[A] Urban
[B] Rural
[C] Agricultural
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Indus Valley Civilization was urbanized, highly developed and sophisticated. The
ruins exhibit high level of planning in the cities. Excavations have indicated that the buildings were
built with baked bricks. The streets were well constructed at right angles with an elaborate and
covered drainage system. The civilization also had public buildings including the vast granaries and
the Great Bath of Mohenjodaro

Q.27) Indus Valley Civilization belongs to

[A] Pre- Historical
[B] Historical Period
[C] Proto Historical
[D] Post Historical

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Proto history period was between prehistory and history period where the
conversion takes place. This period had other Cultural developments other than writing. Harappan
civilization which is also known as Indus Valley civilization belongs to this category. Hence, the
correct answer is option (C).

Q.28) Ancient Pushkalavati has been identified with

[A] Balkh
[B] Charsadda
[C] Hadda
[D] Sirkap

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Pushkalavati, meaning the Lotus City in Sanskrit, was the earliest capital of Gandhara.
The lotus city has been identified with the region we now know as Charsadda and its neighbourhood.

Q.29) Which of the following Upanishads gives clear reference of four Ashrams of individual‘s life?
[A] Jabala Upanishad
[B] Katha Upanishad
[C] Virhadranyaka Upanishad
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In Jabala Upanishad, there is a clear reference of four Ashrams i.e. Brahmachari,
Grihastha, Vanaprastha and Sanyasi.

Q.30) In which of the following Vedas, the priest is Brahma?

[A] Sam Veda
[B] Yajur Veda
[C] Rig Veda
[D] Atharva Veda

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In Atharva Veda, the priest is Brahma.

Q.31) Establishment of Svetambara as a separate sect within Jainism was resulted at ?

[A] Rajgriha
[B] Vallabhi
[C] Ujjaini
[D] Sanchi

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: It was the outcome of Jain monks council meeting held in the year of 453 or 466 CE
Q.32) At which among the following places, Gautam Buddha preached his last sermon?
[A] Sarnath
[B] Rajgir
[C] Vaishali
[D] Pavapuri

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Lord Buddha preached his first sermon at Sarnath. Buddha preached most sermons at
Sravasti. Lord Buddha preached his last sermon at Vaishali.

Q.33) What were the names of Asoka‘s mother, wife & daughter?
[A] Mahadevi, Subhadrangi, Sanghmitra
[B] Subhadrangi, Mahadevi, Sanghmitra
[C] Mahadevi, Sanghamitra, Subhadrangi
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Correct Answer: B [Subhadrangi, Mahadevi, Sanghmitra]

Q.34) Which pillar edict of Asoka is longest of all pillars?

[A] 2nd
[B] 5th
[C] 6th
[D] 7th

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Seventh Pillar Edict mentions Dhamma Mahamattas and it is the longest pillar almost
of all. Pillar Edict VII: Works done by Asoka for Dhamma Policy. He says that all sects desire both
self-control and purity of mind.

Q.35) Which among the following is / are works of Kalidasa?

1. Ritusamhara 2. Meghaduta 3. Malavikagnimitra 4. Kumarashambhava 5. Abhijnana Sakuntalam
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] 1, 2 & 4
[B] 1, 2, 3 & 4
[C] 1, 2, 4 & 5
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Kalidasa was regarded as the greatest poet and dramatist of ancient India. He wrote the
Ritusamhara, the Meghadutta, the Kumarasambava, the Raghuvansa, the Viramavamsiya, the
Malavikagnimitra and Abhijnana Sakuntalam. He was the court poet of Chandragupta II.

Q.36) Who among the following was not among the 9 gems (Navratna) of the Vikramaditya‘s court ?
[A] Vetalbhatt
[B] Amar Simha
[C] Kaalidasa
[D] Aryabhatta

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 9 gems of Vikrama ditya : Dhanwanthari, Kshapanaka, Amarasimha, Shankhu,
Khatakarpara, Kalidasa, Vetalbhatt, Vararuchi, and Varahamihira
Q.37) In Sangam age, the book ‗Bharatam‘ was written by ?
[A] Perudevanar
[B] Manimekalai
[C] Seethalai Saathanaar
[D] Tiruttakrdeva

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The book, ‗ Bharatam‘ was written by Perudevanar. The author had also composed the
invocatory versus for the Sangam classics Ahnanuru, Puranamuru, Kuruntogai, Narrinai and
Aingurunuru.

Q.38) In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattaka' and ‘Pattakila' were used for
[A] Military officers
[B] Village headmen
[C] Specialists in Vedic rituals
[D] Chiefs of craft guilds

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is village headmen. In medieval India, the designations 'Mahattara'
and 'Pattakila' were used for village headmen. Village headmen is the leader of the community in that
village, who owned most of the lands.

Q.39) Which of the following rulers got the Jahaj Mahal of Mandu constructed?
[A] Mahmud Shah Khalji
[B] Alauddin Khalji
[C] Bhoj Parmar
[D] Ghiyasuddin Khalji

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Gyasuddin Khilji. Jahaj Palace in Mandu. It is constructed
under the rule of Gyasuddin Khilji between 1469 and 1500 AD.

Q.40) Which among the following ports was called Babul Mecca (Gate of Mecca) during the
Mughal Period?
[A] Calicut
[B] Bharuch
[C] Cambay
[D] Surat

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Surat was called Gate of Makka because the pilgrimage to Makka started from Surat.

Q.41) Mughals adopted 'Navroj’ festival from

[A] Zoroastrians
[B] Jews
[C] Mongols
[D] Turks

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mughals adopted 'Navroj‘ festival from Zoroastrians.
Q.42) The guerilla warfare was pioneered by
[A] Aurangzeb
[B] Akbar
[C] Shivaji
[D] Balaji Rao

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj started guerrilla warfare against the Mughals and other
powers in 1645 leading to the establishment of the Maratha state in 1674, sowing seeds of what would
become the last great empire (Maratha empire) in free India.

Q.43) Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus station was designed by

[A] Frederick William Stevens
[B] Santiago Calatrava
[C] Fazlur Rahman Khan
[D] Frei Otto

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Frederick William Stevens (11 November 1847 – 3 March 1900) was an English
architectural engineer who worked for the British colonial government in India. Stevens' most notable
design was the railway station Victoria Terminus in Bombay (in 1996 renamed the Chhatrapati
Shivaji Terminus in Mumbai).

Q.44) When did Queen Victoria declared the taking over of Indian Administration under British
Crown ?
[A] 2 November ,1858
[B] 31 December ,1857
[C] 6 January ,1958
[D] 17 November ,1859

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Government of India Act 1858 was an Act of the Parliament of the United
Kingdom (21 & 22 Vict. c. 106) passed on 2 August 1858.

Q.45) Which among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari settlement
in India during the British rule?
1. Lord Comwallis 2. Alexander Reed
3. Thomas Munro
Select the correct answer using the code given below
[A] 1 only
[B] 1 and 3 only
[C] 2 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In the English East India Company, the Ryotwari system was introduced by the
Thomas Munro and Captain Reed in Madras. It was later extended to Bombay, parts of Bengal,
Assam, Coorg etc. In this system, peasants were given the ownership and proprietorship and they
would make direct payment to state as 55% of produce.

Q.46) Sati system was abolished by -

[A] Lord Warren Hastings
[B] Lord Wellesley
[C] Lord William Bentick
[D] Lord Ripon
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Bengal Sati Regulation which banned the Sati practice in all the areas under
BritishJurisdiction in India was passed on December 4, 1859 by then Governor General Lord William
Bentick. The regulation described the practice of Sati as revolting to the feelings of human nature.
The campaign against Sati was started by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

Q.47) Which Governor General had abolished slavery?

[A] Lord Cornwallis
[B] Lord Ellen borough
[C] Lord William Bentick
[D] Sir John Shore

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Indian Slavery Act, 1843 also known as Act V of 1843 passed in British India by
then Governor General, Lord Ellen borough. The act outlawed many economic activities associated
with slavery.

Q.48) Self Respect Movement was launched by?

[A] Sri Narayan Guru
[B] Balshastri Jambhekar
[C] Kandukuri Veerasa Lingam
[D] E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker also known as Periyar launched Self Respect Movement in
Tamil Nadu (1925) and founded Dravida Kazhagam for the upliftment of lower castes, demanding
self-respect for dalits and their profession.

Q.49) What was the name of Magazine published by Mahatma Gandhi?

[A] Swatantrata
[B] The Times
[C] Young India
[D] India mirror

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Young India, a weekly journal, was published by Mahatma Gandhi from 1919 to 1931
to propagate his ideology of Satyagraha and non-violence.

Q.50) Who gave the slogan "Satyame va jayate" ?

[A] Madan mohan malaviya
[B] Lal bahadur shastri
[C] Mahatma Gandhi
[D] B R Ambedkar

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Madan mohan malaviya gave the slogan "Satyame va jayate".
Q.51) Consider the following about silk Road’
1. The Silk Road was founded by Zin Wudi by opening up the first route from China to the west in the
2nd century BC, as a trading expedition.
2. The Silk Road network criss-crossed Eurasia.
3. Maritime routes were an important part of this network.
4. The term ‗Silk Road‘ was coined in 15th CE by Jean Baptiste Travernier.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
[A] 1, 2 and 3 only
[B] 2, 3 and 4 only
[C] 2 and 3 only
[D] 1 and 4 only

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Statement 1: The man who is often credited with founding the silk Roads by opening
up the first route from China to the West in the 2nd century BC. General Zhane Qian was on a
diplomatic mission rather than a trading expedition. Sent to the West in 139 BC by the Han Emperor
Wudi to ensure alliances against the Xiongnu, the hereditary enemies of the Chinese, Zhang Qian was
captured and imprisoned by them. Thirteen years later he escaped and made his way back to China.
Pleased with the wealth of detail and accuracy of his reports the emperor sent Zhang Qian on another
mission in 119 BC to visit several neighbouring peoples establishing early routes from China to
Central Asia.
Statements 2 and 3: Eurasia was Criss-crossed with communication routes and paths of trade, which
gradually linked up to form what are known today as the Silk Roads; routes across both land and sea,
along which silk and many other goods were exchanged between people from across the world.
Maritime routes were an important part of this network, linking East and West by sea, and were used
for the trade or spices in particular thus becoming known as the Spice Routes.
Statement 4: ‗Silk Road‘ is in fact a relatively recent term, and for the majority of their long history,
these ancient roads had no particular name. In the mid- nineteenth century, the German geologist
Baron Ferdinand von Richthofen, named the trade and communication network Die Seidenstrasse (the
Silk Road), and the term, also used in the plural, continues to stir imaginations with its evocative
mystery.
These vast networks carried more than just merchandise and precious commodities however: the
constant movement and mixing of populations also brought about the transmission of knowledge,
ideas, cultures and beliefs, which had a profound impact on the history and Civilizations of the
Eurasian peoples. Travellers along the Silk Roads were attracted not only by trade but also by the
intellectual and cultural exchange that was taking place in cities along the Silk Roads, many or which
developed into hubs of culture and learning.

Q.52) In the colonial city of Madras, who were the dubashes?

[A] Indians who could speak two languages - the local language and English.
[B] Intermediaries between Indian society and British.
[C] Both (a) and (b)
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Madras developed by incorporating innumerable surrounding villages and by creating
opportunities and spaces 11w a variety or communities. Several different communities came and
settled in Madras, performing a range of economic functions. The duhashes were Indians who could
speak two languages-the local language and English. They worked as agents and merchants, acting as
intermediaries between Indian society and the British. They used their privileged position in
government to acquire wealth. Their powerful position in society was established by their charitable
works and patronage of temples in the Black Town.
Q.53) Curzon-Kitchener controversy led to
[A] The resignation of Lord Curzon ns Viceroy.
[B] Re-distribution of political power between the Central Legislative Assembly and provincial
assemblies.
[C] Creation of Bengal Presidency (like Bombay and Madras).
[D] Transfer of Indian capital from Calcutta to Delhi.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In 1905 the viceroy of India, Lord Curzon of Kedleston, was forced to resign as a
result of a disagreement with his Commander-in-Chief. Lord Kitchener of Khartoum, Therefore,
Kitchener's tenure in India is of particular importance.
• Initially, it was Curzon who supported Kitchener's move to reorganize the Indian Army. It was the
Viceroy who had lobbied for Kitchener's appointment as commander in chief.
• Later, Curzon realized that Kitchener had plans to take away the controls of the military from him.
This Kitchener eventually managed to do and ensured that all decisions regarding the military were
taken in his own office.
• Thanks to his clout, Kitchener received support from London and Curzon decided to step down.
Later, it came to be realized that the viceroy was right in having opposed Kitchener.
• What began as a mild bureaucratic affair soon escalated into a major power battle, and the scene of
the struggle shifted in turn from the narrow confines of Indian bureaucracy to the exalted chambers o‘
Imperial decision-makers to the public forum of two continents.

Q.54) Consider the following about the National Anthem and National Song of India.
1. The National Anthem of India was first sung at the Calcutta Session of the Indian National
Congress.
2. The National Song was first sung at the 1930 Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Statement 1: The song Jana-gana-mana, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindra
Nath Tagore, was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly as the National Anthem
or India on January 24, 1950. It was first sung on December 27, 1911 at the Calcutta Session of the
Indian National Congress. The complete song consists of five stanzas. The first stanza Contains the
full version of the National Anthem.
Statement 2: The song Vande Mataram composed in Sanskrit by Bankimchandra Chatterji, was a
source of inspiration to the people in their struggle for freedom. It has an equal status with Jana-gana-
mana. The first political occasion when it was sung was the 1896 session of the Indian National
Congress.

Q.55) The first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), often called the father
of Indian archaeology, he had a pioneering role in the archaeology of the Harappan civilization. He
was
[A] Max Muller
[B] James Prinsep
[C] Alexander Cunningham
[D] Robert Wheeler

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: As early as 1875, Alexander Cunningham, the first Director-General or the
Archaeological Survey or India (ASI), often called the father of Indian archaeology, noted that the
amount or brick taken from the ancient site was enough to lay bricks for ‗about 100 miles‘ of the
railway line between Lahore and Multan.
When Cunningham, the first Director- General of the ASI, began archaeological excavations in the
mid-nineteenth century, archaeologists preferred to use the written word (texts and inscriptions) as a
guide to investigations.
In fact, Cunningham's main interest was in the archaeology of the Early Historic (c. sixth century
BCE-fourth century CE) and later periods. He used the accounts left by Chinese Buddhist pilgrims
who had visited the subcontinent between the fourth and seventh centuries CE to locate early
settlements. Cunningham also collected, documented and translated inscriptions found during his
surveys. When he excavated sites he tended to recover artefacts that he thought had cultural
value. Subsequently seals were discovered at Harappa by archaeologists such as Daya Ram Sahni in
the early decades of the twentieth century, in layers that were definitely much older than Early
Historic levels, it was then that their significance began to be realised.
Another archaeologist, Rakhal Das Banerji found similar seals at Mohenjodaro leading to the
conjecture that these sites were part of a single archaeological culture. Based on these finds, in i924,
John Marshall, Director -General of the ASI, announced the discovery of a new civilisation in the
Indus valley to the world. As S.N. Roy noted in The Story of Indian Archaeology, ‗Marshall left India
three thousand years older than he had found her.‘ This was because similar, till-then unidentified
seals were found at excavations at Mesopotamin sites, it was then that the world knew not only, of a
new eivilisations, but also of one contemporaneous with Mesopotamia.

Q.56) The Tashkent Agreement contained the provisions of:

1. A no-war pact between India and Pakistan
2. Non interference in each other‘s internal affairs
Which of the above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Statement 1: The agreement was criticized in India because it did not contain a no-war
pact or any renunciation of guerrilla warfare in Kashmir. After signing the agreement, Indian Prime
Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri died mysteriously in Tashkent.
Statement 2: The Tashkent Declaration was a peace agreement between India and Pakistan signed on
10 January 1966 that resolved the Indo-Pakistani War or 1965. The declaration stated that Indian and
Pakistani forces would pull back to their pre-conflict positions, pre-August lines, no later than 25
February 1966, the nations would not interfere in each other‘s internal affairs, economic and
diplomatic relations would be restored, there would be an orderly transfer of prisoners of war, and the
two leaders would work towards improving bilateral relations.

Q.57) Consider the following statements.

1. Under the leadership of pandit Nehru, India convened the Asian Relation Conference right after its
Independence
2. India was one of the participants in the Bandung conference that over the year led to the
establishment of the Non Alignment Movement (NAM).
Which of the above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Statement 1: Throughout the 1940s and 1950s, Nehru had been an ardent advocate of
Asian unity. Under his leadership, India convened the Asian Relations Conference in March 1947,
five months ahead of attaining its independence. India made earnest efforts for the early realisation of
freedom of Indonesia from the Dutch colonial regime by convening an international conference in
1949 to support its freedom struggle.
Statement 2: India was a staunch supporter of the decolonisation process and firmly opposed racism,
especially apartheid in South Africa. The Afro-Asian conference held in the Indonesian city or
Bandung in 1955, commonly known as the Bandung Conference, marked the zenith of India‘s
engagement with the newly independent Asian and African nations.
The Bandung Conference later led to the establishment of the NAM. The First Summit of the NAM
was held in Belgrade in September 1961

Q.58) consider the following statements.

1. Although the British Empire in India came to an end in 1947, Portugal refused to withdraw from
the territories of Goa, Diu and Daman which were under its colonial rule since the fourteenth century.
2. At the time of India‘s Independence Sikkim was not a fully sovereign country but a 'protectorate' of
India.
Which of the above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Statement 1: Although the British Empire in India came to an end in 1947, Portugal
refused to withdraw from the territories of Goa, Diu and Daman which were under its colonial rule
since the sixteenth century. During their long rule, the Portuguese suppressed the people of Goa,
denied them civil rights, and carried out forced religious conversions. After India's Independence, the
Indian government tried very pathently to persuade the Portuguese government to withdraw.
There was also a strong popular movement within Goa for freedom. They were strengthened by
socialist Satyagrahis from Maharashtra. Finally, in December 1961, the Government of India sent the
army which liberated thise territories after barely two days of action. Goa, Diu and Daman became
Union Territory.
Statement 2: At the time of Independence, Sikkim was a 'protectorate‘ of India. It meant that while it
was not a part of India, it was also not a fully sovereign country. Sikkim‘s defence and foreign
relations were looked after by India, while the power of internal administration was with the Chogyal,
Sikkim's monarch.
This arrangement ran into difficulty as the Chogyal was unable to deal with the democratic aspirations
of the people. An overwhelming majority of Sikkim‘s population was Nepali. But the Chogyal was
seen ns perpetuating the rule of a small elite from the minority Lepcha-Bhutia community. The anti-
Chogyal leaders of both the communithis sought and got support from the Government of India.
The first democratic elections to Sikkim assembly in 1974 were swept by Sikkim Congress which
stood for greater integration with India. The assembly first sought the status of ‗associate state, and
then in April 1975 passed a resolution asking for full integration with India.
The Indian Parliament accepted this request immediately and Sikkim became the 22nd State of the
Indian union.

Q.59) The Anandapur Sahib Resolution asserted

[A] Regional autonomy of the Sikh regions
[B] Banishing the Gurudwara Sahab Prabandhak Committee (GSPC) towards a more democratic
organization.
[C] The futility of a federal structure for India.
[D] The separation of religion from state

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: After the reorganisation, the Akalis came to power in 1967 and then in 1977 the Sikh
community, like all other religious communithis, was internally differentiated on caste and class lines.
The Congress got more support among the Dalits, whether Hindu or Sikh, than the Akalis.
It was in this context that during the 1 970s a section or Akalis began to demand political autonomy
for the region. This was reflected in a resolution passed at their conference at Anandpur Sahib in
1973.

Q.60) Consider the following statements.

1. V.K.R.V. Rao, the then Indian Minister of Education, played an important role in the formation of
the International Association of Sanskrit Studies.
2. A. L. Basham and A. K. Narain, eminent historians of Ancient India, were behind the setting up of
the International Association of Buddhist Studies (IABS).
Which of the above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Statement 1: In 1971 Professor V.K.R.V. Rao, the then Minister of Education
Ministry of Human Resource Development (Government of India) and chairman of the Central
Sanskrit Board, planned the First International Sanskrit Conference.
The two themes he suggested for the proposed Sanskrit Conference were the contribution of the
various regions of the world to Sanskrit studies and the contribution of Sanskrit to the advancement of
knowledge in different regions of the world. This first Conference had to be postponed to 1972.
At the 29th International Congress of Orientalists, held in Paris in 1973, Sanskritists from various
countries endorsed the formation of the International Association of Sanskrit Studies and drafted its
constitution.
• The main task of the IASS was agreed to be the organizing of a world Sanskrit Conference at
different venues around the world.
• Members of the IASS are registered on an individual basis by paying a membership fee, either
directly to the LASS (see ‗Download Membership Form' below), or through their membership of a
national association that is a affiliated to the IASS.
• The 1972 International Sanskrit Conference in New Delhi was recognised retrospectively as the First
World Sanskrit Conference.
Statement 2: By the middle of the 1970s workers in the field of Buddhist studies were experiencing
more and more urgently the acute need for an international academic organisation wholly dedicated to
the pursuit and furtherance of the study of Buddhism in one or several of its many aspects.
IABS With this end in view, a small meeting was convenced in 1976 by two scholars who were
leading historians of ancient India, professor A. L. Basham and A. K. Narain, and it was agreed by
those present that a learned society having this purpose should be founded.

The first organised conference of the International Association of Buddhist Studies (JABS) was thee
held on 15-17 September 1978 under the auspices of Columbia University (New York).

Q.61) People's Union for Civil Liberthis (PUCL) is a human rights body formed in India in 1976
by the socialist leader
[A] Jayaprakash Narayan
[B] Vinoba Bhave
[C] E.M.S Namboodiripad
[D] Narayan Ganesh Gore

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: When India Gandhi Was found guilty of Violating electoral laws by the Allahabad
High Court, Narayan called for India to resign, and advocated a program of social transformation. He
asked the military and police to disregard unconstitutional and immoral orders. However, Janata Party
opposition leaders and dissenting members offer party, Congress were arrested, beginning The
Emergency. Narayan was detained at Chandigarh. and when released in 1976, formed the PUCL to
oppose the suppression or civil and political rights during the emergency. The organization was
thrown into disarray by his death and the election of the Janata party to power, which promised to
enact the PUCL platform.
Narayan originally intended PUCL to be an organisation free from political ideologies, bringing those
concerned about defending civil liberthis and human rights from different backgrounds onto a
common platform
After the return of India Gandhi to power in the 1980 elections in India, the organisation regained
momentum and was renamed as the People's Union tor Civil Liberthis (PUCL). Its founding
conference was held in November 1980.

Q.62) Kamraj plan’ Was related to The reformation of the ranks of Which of the following
parthis?
[A] Labour party
[B] Indian National Congress
[C] Bharatiya Jan Sangh
[D] Congress Socialist Party

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In 1963 he proposed that all senior Congressmen should resign from office to make
way for younger party workers—this proposal is famous as the ‗Kamraj plan.‘ K. Kamraj (1903-
1975); was a freedom fighter and Congress President: Chief Minister or Madras (Tamil Nadu);
having suffered educational deprivation, made efforts to spread education in Madras province:
introduced mid-day meal scheme for schoolchildren;

Q.63) Privy Purse was granted to The Princely states due to which of thise reasons?
[A] Princely, states played a significant role in bringing constitutional reforms in the British
administration
[B] This was a part of the compromise to get Princely states on board the Constituent Assembly.
[C] Princely, states had significant private property and their integration was preceded by an
assurance that they will be allowed to retain some property and be given some government
allowances.
[D] There was a revolt in the general populace with the uprooting of the Princely states from the
Independent India.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The integration of the Princely States was preceded by an assurance that after the
dissolution of Princely rule, the then rulers, families would be allowed to retain certain private
property, and given a grant in heredity or government allowance, measured on the basis of the extent,
revenue and potential or the merging state. This grant was called the privy purse. At the time of
accession, there was litthe criticism of thise privileges since integration and consolidation was the
primary aim. Yet, hereditary privileges were not consonant with the principles or equality and social
and economic justice laid down in the constitution of India Nehru had expressed his dissatisfaction
over the matter time and again. Following the 1967 elections, India Gandhi supported the demand that
the government should abolish privy purses. Morarji Desai, however called the move morally Wrong
and amounting to a breach of faith with the princes‘. The government tried to bring a Constitutional
amendment in 1970, but it was not passed in Rajya Sabha, it then issued an ordinance which was
struck down by the Supreme Court. India Gandhi made this into a major election issue in 1971 and
got a lot of public support. Following its massive victory in the 1971 election, the Constitution was
amended to remove legal obstacles for abolition of ‗privy purse‘
Q.64) Consider the following statements about the Swatantra Party formed in India.
1. It was formed after the 1934 Nagpur resolution or the Congress.
2. The Swatantra Party was against land ceilings in agriculture, and opposed cooperative farming and
state trading.
3. It was critical of the policy of non-alignment and maintaining friendly relations with the United
States and advocated closer this with the Soviet Union.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
[A] 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 2 only
[D] 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Swatantra Party was formed in August 1959 after the Nagpur resolution of the
Congress which called for land ceilings, take-over of food grain trade by the state and adoption of
cooperative farming.
The party was led by old Congressmen like C. Rajagopalachari, K. M. Munshi, N.G. Ranga and
Minoo Mnsani. The party stood out from the others in terms of its position on economic issues.
The Swatantra Party wanted the government to be less and less involved in controlling the economy.
It believed that prosperity could come only through individual freedom.
It was critical of the development strategy of state intervention in the economy, centralised planning,
nationalisation and the public sector. It instead favoured expansion of a free private sector. The
Swatantra Party was against land ceilings in agriculture, and opposed cooperative farming and state
trading.
It was also opposed to the progressive tax regime and demanded dismantling of the licensing regime.
It was critical of the policy of non-alignment and maintaining friendly relations with the Soviet Union
and advocated closer this with the United States. The industrialists and business class who were
against nationalisation and the licensing policies also supported the party.

Q.65) Consider the following statements about the Indo-China conflict in 1962.
1. After the conflict in 1962, full diplomatic relations were restored between both the nations only in
1984.
2. An important cause of the war was a dispute over the sovereignty of the widely separated Aksai
Chin and North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA) border regions.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Statement 1: It took more than a decade for India and China to resume normal
relations. It was in 1976 that full diplomatic relations were restored between the two countries.
Atal Behari Vajpayee was the first top level leader (he was then External Affairs Minister) to visit
China in 1979. Later, Rajiv Gandhi became the first Prime Minister after Nehru to visit China. Since
then, the emphasis is more on trade relations between the two countries.
Statement 2: The cause of the war was a dispute over the sovereignty of the widely separated Aksai
Chin and Arunachal Pradesh border regions. Aksai Chin, claimed by India to belong to Kashmir and
by China to be part of Xinjiang, contains an important road link that connects the Chinese regions of
Tibet and xinjiang. China's construction of this road was one or the triggers of the conflict. There
were other related issues as well such as annexation of Tibet
Q.66) The three Language formula’ in India is related to which of the following?
[A] Conservation of endangered tribal languages in sixth Schedule areas only
[B] Diplomatic code for encrypted communication with foreign observers and visitors.
[C] Education language policy of the government
[D] Translation or ancient scriptures for preservation in traditional knowledge digital library.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The three-language formula for language learning was formulated in 1968 by the
Ministry of Education of the Government of India in consultation with the states.
• It provides for the study of ‗Hindi, English and modern Indian language (preferably one of the
southern languages) in the Hindi speaking states and Hindi, English and the Regional language in the
non- Hindi speaking States‘.
• The formula was formulated in response to demands from non-Hindi speaking states of the South,
such as Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and mainly Tamil Nadu.

• However, Tamil Nadu Government opposed the three language formula and continued to teach only
two languages, that is, English and Tamil in the educational institutions of the state

Q.67) The origin of communist Party (Marxist-Leninist) (CPI-ML) was a direct and immediate
result of
[A] Wardha Session of the Indian National Congress, 1942
[B] Mukti Sangharsh, 1955
[C] Naxalbari movement, 1967
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In 1967 a peasant uprising took place in the Naxalbard police station area of Darjeeling
hills district in West Bengal under the leadership of the local cadres or the Communist Party or India
(Marxist).
Beginning from the Naxalbari police station, the peasant movement spread to several states of India
came to be referred broadly as the Naxalite movement. In 1969, they broke off from the CPI (M) and
a new party, Communist Party (Marxist-Leninist) (CPI-ML) was formed under the leadership of
Charu Majumdar. It argued that democracy in India was a sham and decided to adopt a strategy of
protracted guerrilla warfare in order to lead to a revolution. The Naxalite movement has used force to
snatch land from the rich landowners and give it to the poor and the landless. Its supporters advocated
the use of Violent means to achieve their political goals. In spite of the use of preventive detention
and other strong measures adopted by the West Bengal government run by the Congress party, the
Naxalite movement did not come to an end. In later years, it spread to many other parts of the country.
The Naxalite movement has by now splintered into various parties and organisations. Some of these
parties, like the CPI-ML (Liberation) participate in open, democratic politics. Currently about 75
districts in nine States are affected by Naxalite violence

Q.68) The categorization or Indian states in Parts A, B, C and the like was abolished by
[A] Indian Independence act, 1947.
[B] The Seventh Constitutional Amendment (1956).
[C] Declaration of India as a republic in the Preamble of the Constitution.
[D] Mountbatten's Plan. 1947.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Initially these (category based) states acceded with respect to defence, communication,
external affairs to India: but later they felt that a closer association with Indian politics was necessary.
The five unions and Mysore accepted Indian jurisdiction in Union, concurrent subjects except taxation
and subject to differences as under Article 238 and the supervisory power of Union for ten years.
The Seventh Amendment(1956) abolished Part-B states as a class, and formed one class out of Parts
A and B; thus special provisions relating to Part B states were deleted.
The Indian states thus lost their identity and became part of one uniform political set-up.

Q.69) which of these events happened were contemporary to the partition of India in 1947?
1. Annexation of Goa by India.
2. Integration of Hyderabad (Princely state) in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Statement 1: The Annexation of Goa happened in 1961. India annexed the former
Portuguese Indian territories of Goa. Daman and Diu, starting with the ‗armed action' carried out by
the Indian Armed Forces.
Statement 2: After the Partition of India. Hyderabad tried to be a part of Pakistan bur signed a
standstill agreement with the new dominion or India, continuing all previous arrangements except for
the stationing of Indian troops in the state. Hyderabad's location in the middle of the Indian union, as
well as its diverse cultural heritage, was a driving force behind India's invasion and annexation of‘ the
state in 1948. Subsequently, Mir Osman Al Khan signed an instrument of accession, joining India.
Therefore, the partition of India does not cover the incorporation of the enclaves of French India into
India during the period 1947—1954, nor the annexation of Goa and other districts of Portuguese India
by India in 1961, Other contemporaneous political entities in the region in 194, Sikkim, Bhutan,
Nepal, and the Maldives were unaffected by the partition.

Q.70) Jayaprakash Narayan’s concept of Total Revolution was aimed at

[A] Exposing the totalitarian nature of the incumbent government
[B] Removing landlessness from rural areas completely by Bhoodan and forced acquisitions
[C] Bringing a change in the existing society in tune with the ideals of the Sarvodaya.
[D] Strengthening the local self-governing institutions on Gandhian lines enabling them to counter
increasing centralization in governance.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Jayaprakash once stated that Total Revolution is a combination of seven revolutions,
viz., political, social, economic, cultural, ideological or intellectual, educational and spiritual; and the
main motive being to bring in a change in the existing society that is in tune with the ideals of the
Sarvodaya. He had a very idealistic notion of society and it is in this endeavour, he shifted from
Marxism to Socialism and later towards Sarvodaya. By the early 1 970s, Jayaprakash completely
withdrew from party and power politics, and concentrated more on social regeneration through
peaceful means. He was in news for some time.

Q.71) Jayaprakash Narayan was associated with which of the following movements in India?
1. Nav Nirman Andolan, Gujarat 2.Bihar Movement 3.Non-Cooperation Movement 4. Civil
Disobedience Movement 5.Channparan Movement
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
[A] 1 and 5 only
[B] 3 and 4 only
[C] 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has given its approval to the
proposal of the Ministry of Culture for setting up of a National Memorial at Lala Ka Tola, Sitab,
Diara, District Chhapra (Saran) in Bihar. It is the birth place of Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan.
About Jayaprakash Narayan:
• He was an Indian independence activist, social reformer and political leader.
He is popularly called Loknayak'.
He participated in Non-Cooperation movement (NCM), Civil Disobedience Movement (CDM) and
Vinoba Bhave's Sarvodaya and Bhoodan Movement.
In 1999, he was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in
recognition of his social work. Other awards include the Magsaysay award for Public Service in 1965.
The Patna airport is also named after him.

• Navnirman Andolan Movement of Gujarat asked Jayaprakash to lead a peaceful agitation, on 8 April
1974, aged 72, he led a silent procession at Patna

Q.72) Under ‘Gramdan’ movement spread by Vinoba Bhave

1. Any land greater than the legal ceiling was forfeited by zamindars to the government.
2. Villages were distributed to landless poor people.
3. Villages were instructed to abandon living spaces demarcated on the basis of caste.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 2 only

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: After Mahatma Gandhi‘s martyrdom, Vinoba Bhave undertook padyatra to spread
Gandhi‘s message and covered almost the entire country. Once, when he was delivering a lecture at
Pochampalli in Andhra Pradesh, some poor landless villagers demanded some land for their economic
well-being. Vinoba Bhave could not promise it to them immediately but assured then to talk to the
Govennment of India regarding provision of land for them if they undertook cooperative farming,
suddenly, Shri Ram Chandra Reddy stood up and offered 80 acres of land to be distributed among 80
landless villagers. This act was known as ‗Bhoodan'. Later he travelled and introduced his ideas
widely all over India. Some zamindars, owners of many villages offered to distribute some villages
among the landless. It was known as Gramdan. However, many landowners chose to provide some
part of their land to the poor farmers due to the fear of Land Ceiling act. This Bhoodan-Gramdan
movement initiated by vinoba Bhave is also known as the Bloodless Revolution.

Q.73) The non-Alignment movement was formed in the backdrop of

1. Cold war rivalry between US and USSR
2. Decolonization of African nations
Which of the above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The 1 950s and 1960s saw the emergence or the Cold war, that is, power rivalries and
ideological conflicts between the USA and the USSR, with both countries creating military alliances.
This was also the period when colonial empires were collapsing and many countries were attaining
independence. Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, who was also the foreign minister of newly
independent India, developed free India‘s foreign policy in this context. Non-alignment formed the
bedrock of this foreign policy, with Yugoslavia, Ghana, Egypt and Indonesia, he formed the Non-
alignment Movement
Q.74) Match the following popular civil society movements to their country/place or origin.
1. The Green Belt Movement—Kenya
2.The Chipko Movement -Himachal Pradesh
3. Kittiko-Hachchiko Karnataka
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
[A] 1 and 2
[B] 2 and 3
[C] 1 and 3
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In 1987, Kittiko-Hachchiko movement which meant to pluck and plant, was started as
a nonviolent protest. In this movement people plucked the eucalyptus plants and planted saplings of
trees that were useful for them.
Chipko Movement was started in Uttarakhand. 

Q.75) The Temperance movement of 9th century Britain and America was a middle class-led
social reform movement against the social evil of alcoholism. It draws a parallel in India with
the popular
[A] Sarvodaya campaign against alcohol of 1960s.
[B] Chhattisgarh Mukti Morcha (CMM) rally of 1980s.
[C] Unmoolan Andolan in West Bengal 1970s
[D] Peoples Action for Rural Awakening (PARA) 1980s.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Taking care of innocent children is one of the prime Concerns of PARA. So, option (d)
is wrong. CMM rally was about miner's rights and welfare. So, option (b) is also wrong. There is no
movement named Unmoolan Andolan in West Bengal. So, option (c) is also wrong.

Q.76) Nappe is a kind of

[A] Fluvial feature
[B] Folded structure
[C] Erosional plain
[D] Deltaregion

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Nappe, in geology, large body or sheet of rock that has been moved a distance of about
2 km (1.2 miles) or more from its original position by faulting or folding. An extremely folded
structure in which the motion of thrust fold overrides the adjacent rock structure is called Nappes.
These are found at convergent plate boundaries. Example: - The Himalayan Nappes in Uttarakhand &
Nepal.

Q.77) Sandstone is which type of rock?

[A] Calcwaterous Rock
[B] Igneous Rock
[C] Metamorphic Rock
[D] Sedimentary Rock

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sandstone is one of the most common types of sedimentary rock and is found in
sedimentary basins throughout the world. Sandstone is a sedimentary rock mainly composed of
Quartz or Feldspar. When metamorphosed Sandstone changes to Quartzite.
Q.78) Decaying vegetation produces organic acids which causes a breakdown of minerals. This is
________
[A] Physical weathering
[B] Chemical weathering
[C] Both (a) and (b)
[D] Chemical erosion

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Over time, large enough cracks develop and weathering takes place. Plants, such as
moss, are capable of releasing weak organic acids, that will dissolve minerals from the rocks and
cause chemical weathering. Apart from moss, organisms such as fungus and lichen are also capable of
similar chemical weathering action.

Q.79) Which of the following is meant by an archipelago?

[A] Lake
[B] Island
[C] Mountain
[D] Plateau

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An archipelago is a group of islands. It may be a sea or stretch of water having many
Islands. Andaman archipelago is an example from the Indian Ocean.

Q.80) The place Sabarimala is situatad in which of the following states?

[A] Andhra Pradesh
[B] Tamil Nadu
[C] Kerala
[D] Karnataka

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sabarimala is a Hindu pilgrimage centre located at the Periyar Tiger Reserve in the
Western Ghat mountain ranges of Pathanamthitta District, Perunad grama panchayat in Kerala.

Q.81) Which of the following Indian states does not lie on in Indo-Bangla border?
[A] Assam
[B] Mizoram
[C] Tripura
[D] Manipur

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Manipur does not lie in Indo-Bangla border. Assam, Mizoram and Tripura lie in 1do-
Bangla border.

Q.82) Which is the source of Krishna river?

[A] Multai
[B] Tala
[C] Mahabaleshwar
[D] Amarkantak

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The source of Krishna river is at Mahabaleshwar near Jor village in the extreme north
of Wai Taluka, Satara District, Maharashtra in the west and empties into the Bay of Bengal at
Hamsaladeevi (near Koduru) in Andhra Pradesh, on the east coast.
Q.83) Which of the following rivers is the fifth largest river and the largest west flowing river?
[A] Narmada river
[B] Arvari river
[C] Godavari river
[D] Subarnarekha river

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Narmada river is the fifth largest river and the largest west flowing river. It rises from
Amarkantak Plateau in Anuppur district Madhya Pradesh.

Q.84) Which is the largest tributary of the river Indus?

[A] Jhelum
[B] Chenab
[C] Sutlej
[D] Beas

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Chenab River is the largest tributary of the river Indus. It has a total length of
about 605 miles (974 km), and it also feeds irrigation canals. The Chenab empties into the River
Sutlej.

Q.85) ‗Van Mahotsav‘ is associated with:

[A] Cutting trees
[B] Planting trees
[C] Increase in crop
[D] Protection of plants

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Van Mahotsav is an annual tree-planting festival in India, celebrated in the first week
of July. This movement was initiated in the year 1950 by India's then Union Minister for Agriculture,
Kulapati Dr.K M Munshi.

Q.86) Shivpuri National Park of Madhya Pradesh is important for :

[A] Tiger and Elephant
[B] Wild Buffalo
[C] Birds
[D] Leopard and Chital

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The predominant wild animal species that inhabits the Park is the deer, of which the
most easily sighted are the graceful little chinkara or Indian gazelle, and the chital. Other species that
have their habitat in the park are nilgai, sambar, chausingha or four-horned antelope, blackbuck, sloth
bear, leopard and the common langur.

Q.87) Which one was the first ‗Biosphere Reserves‘ Project Scheme?
[A] Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve
[B] Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve
[C] Nandadevi Biosphere Reserve
[D] Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Established in the year 1986, Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is the first biosphere reserve in
India. It is an International Biosphere Reserve in the Western Ghats.
Q.88) Which are the west-flowing rivers of southern India which flow into Arabian Sea?
[A] Chambal and Betwa
[B] Damodar and Mahanadi
[C] Narmada and Tapti
[D] Krishna and Cauveri

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Narmada and Tapti are the west-flowing rivers of southern India which flow into
Arabian Sea. The two major west flowing rivers are the Narmada and the Tapi. This exceptional
behavior is because these rivers didn‘t form valleys and instead they flow through faults (linear rift,
rift valley, trough) created due to the bending of the northern peninsula during the formation process
of Himalayas.

Q.89) Arrange the following rivers in descending order of their length:

1. Ravi
2. Cauvery
3. Sutlej
4. Yamuna
[A] 1, 2, 4, 3
[B] 3, 4, 1, 2
[C] 4, 3, 2, 1
[D] 1, 2, 3, 4

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The following rivers in descending order of their length are Yamuna, Sutlej, Cauvery
and Ravi.

Q.90) Cherapunji receives more rainfall than Shillong because ________

[A] The former is nearer to the sea
[B] The air of different densities and temperature tends to converge towards Cherapunji from different
direction during the rainy season
[C] Cherapunji is located on the windward side
[D] Convective precipitation brings more rain at Cherapunji

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cherapunji receives more rainfall than Shillong because the air of different densities
and temperature tends to converge towards Cherapunji from different direction during the rainy
season. Cherrapunji receives both the southwest and northeast monsoonal winds, giving it a single
monsoon season. It lies on the windward side of the Khasi Hills, so the resulting orographic lift
enhances precipitation.

Q.91) Taking into account the amount of rainfall occurring from June to September, which one
of the following is the correct order of cities in terms of rainfall?
[A] Kolkata > Ahmedabad > Allahabad
[B] Kolkata > Allahabad > Ahmedabad
[C] Allahabad > Kolkata > Ahmedabad
[D] Ahmedabad > Kolkata > Allahabad

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Taking into account the amount of rainfall occurring from June to September, the
following is the correct order of cities in terms of rainfall Kolkata, Allahabad and then Ahmedabad.
Q.92) The most important item of export among marine products from India is ________
[A] Crabs
[B] Lobsters
[C] Shrimp
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The most important item of export among marine products from India is Shrimp. India
is a leading exporter of sea food. India is the largest shrimp exporter to the USA by passing Thailand,
Indonesia and other South East Asia countries known for seafood exports. India earned approximately
$7 billion dollars from marine product export with shrimp accounting for approximately 68% of the
amount in the 2017-2018 financial year.

Q.93) Among the following crops which one occupies the largest area in India?
[A] Groundnut
[B] Mustard
[C] Rapeseed
[D] Sugarcane

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sugarcane occupies the largest area in India. Sugarcane is grown on around 2.8% of
Gross Cropped Area of India. India produced around 352 million tonnes of sugar.

Q.94) Where in India is mica mined?

[A] Nasirabad (Rajasthan)
[B] Gaya (Bihar)
[C] Nellore (Andhra Pradesh)
[D] All the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In India mica is mined in Nasirabad (Rajasthan), Gaya (Bihar) and Nellore (Andhra
Pradesh).

Q.95) The First port developed after independence was

[A] New Mangalore
[B] Mumbai
[C] Nhava Sheva
[D] Kandla

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Kandla was developed as an off spring port. As due to partition India lost important
Karachi port to Pakistan so Mumbai port was over burdened with excess work. This effect was
neutralised by diverting trade to Kandla port which situate in Kutch district Gujarat.

Q.96) What is the correct sequence of hill stations according to height above mean sea level in
descending order?
[A] Kodaikanal Darjeeling Shimla and Mahabaleshwar
[B] Shimla Kodaikanal Darjeeling and Mahabaleshwar
[C] Kodaikanal Shimla Mahabaleshwar and Darjeeling
[D] Mahabaleshwar Shimla Darjeeling and Kodaikanal

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct sequence of hill stations according to height above mean sea level in
descending order are Shimla-2,276 m, Kodaikanal-2,133 m, Darjeeling-2,042 m and Mahabaleshwar-
1,353 m.
Q.97) The Indian State with lowest population, according to 2011 Census ?
[A] Arunachal Pradesh
[B] Mizoram
[C] Nagaland
[D] Sikkim

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: According to the State Census 2011, the most populated state in India is Uttar Pradesh
with a population of 19.96 crores. The least populated state in the country is Sikkim with a population
of 60, 7688.

Q.98) The most important cash crop of West Bengal is :

[A] jute
[B] Tea
[C] Tobacco
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The most important cash crop of West Bengal is jute.

Q.99) Adra of Purulia district is known for

[A] Fishing Industry
[B] Railway Junction
[C] District headquarter
[D] Health Resort

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Adra of Purulia district is famous for Railway Junction.
 Some famous rivers of Purulia are- Subarnarekha, Kangsabati, Kumari, Silabati (silai),
Dwarakeswar, and Damodar.
 Purulia is also famous for Ayodhya Hills.
 It is also the origin of the famous dance of Bengal- "Chau Dance".
 Chittaranjan of Paschim Bardhaman district is known for Locomotive work in West
Bengal.
 Durgapur of Paschim Bardhaman district is known for the Iron and Steel Industry.
o It is known as the steel capital of East India.
o The place is also termed as the "Rurh of Bengal".
 Malancha of North 24 Parganas is known for the fishing industry in West Bengal.
Q.100) Damodar river rises from
[A] Rajmahal plateau
[B] Chhotanagpur plateau
[C] the Himalayas
[D] the Eastern Ghats

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Damodar river rises from Chhotanagpur plateau.

Q.101) RER looks rough under a microscope because

[A] it has Ribosomes
[B] it has rough particles
[C] it has tubules
[D] it has tubes

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: RER(rough endoplasmic reticulum) looks rough under a microscope because it has
particles called ribosomes attached to its surface.

Q.102) Fat present below the skin surface in our body acts as a barrier against
[A] loss of heat from the body
[B] loss of essential body fluids
[C] loss of salt from the body
[D] entry of harmful microorganisms from the environment

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Adipose tissue that's fat cells which are under the skin act as barrier to loss of the heat
from the body and it protects the skin from entering of highly reactive UV rays of the sun. Fat
present below the skin surface in our body, act as an insulator against loss of heat from the body.

Q.103) Which of the following is the largest gland in the human body?
[A] Pituitary gland
[B] Parotid gland
[C] Pancreas
[D] Liver

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: liver, the largest gland in the body, a spongy mass of wedge-shaped lobes that has
many metabolic and secretory functions.

Q.104) The heart rate in an adult person is

[A] 50-60 times per minute
[B] 70-80 times per hour
[C] 70-80 times per second
[D] 70-80 times per minute

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The normal pulse for healthy adults ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute. The
pulse rate may fluctuate and increase with exercise, illness, injury, and emotions.

Q.105) Which of the following is the sweetest sugar?

[A] Sucrose
[B] Glucose
[C] Fructose
[D] Maltose

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Answer B is corrcet.

Q.106) Which of the following diseases is caused by the deficiency of Niacin?

[A] Scurvy
[B] Rickets
[C] Pellagra
[D] Pernicious anaemia

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency results in a condition known as pellagra. Pellagra
includes the triad of dermatitis, dementia, and diarrhea and can result in death.
Q.107) Fertilization takes place in human :
[A] In uterus
[B] In vagina
[C] In ovary
[D] In fallopian tubes

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Fertilization usually takes place in a fallopian tube that links an ovary to the uterus.
If the fertilized egg successfully travels down the fallopian tube and implants in the uterus, an embryo
starts growing.

Q.108) The basic structural and functional unit of heredity is:

[A] Nucleus
[B] DNA
[C] Chromosome
[D] Gene

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A gene is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. Genes are made up of
DNA.

Q.109) Tuft of capillary vessels that is surrounded by Bowman's capsule is

[A] Malpighian corpuscle
[B] juxtaglomerular apparatus
[C] glomerulus
[D] loop of Henle

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The nephron comprises two major components, the renal corpuscles and the renal
tubule. Each renal corpuscle consists of a glomerulus (a tuft of vascular capillaries) surrounded by
the expanded proximal end of the nephron, the Bowman's capsule.

Q.110) What is the number of significant figures in 433.00?

[A]2
[B]3
[C]4
[D] 5

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 433.00 has five significant figures. (5) In exponential notation, the numerical portion
gives the number of significant figures.

Q.111) The upward force of buoyancy exerted by the fluid, is equal to the weight of the body’.
This statement is given by
[A] Archimedes‘ principle
[B] Pascal's law
[C] Boyle's law
[D] Charles‘ law

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: This principle indicates that the upward buoyant force that is exerted on a body
immersed in a fluid, whether fully or partially submerged, is equal to the weight of the fluid that the
body displaces States Archimedes principle. Type 1 for true and 0 for flase.
Q.112) Which one among the following is correct for resultant of balanced forces?
[A] It is zero
[B] It is non-zero
[C] It varies continuously
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Its zero. when two forces acting on an object are not equal in size, we say that they
are unbalanced force. The overall force acting on the object is called the resultant force. If
the forces are balanced, the resultant force is zero.

Q.113) Mass-energy equivalence depends on the constant called

[A] gravitational constant
[B] Planck's constant
[C] Coulombs constant
[D] speed of light in vacuum

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In the rest frame of an object, where by definition it is motionless and so has no
momentum, the mass and energy are equivalent and they differ only by a constant, the speed of light
squared.

Q.114) Lack of atmosphere around the Moon is due to

[A] low escape velocity of air molecule and low gravitational attraction
[B] high escape velocity of air molecule and low gravitational attraction
[C] low gravitational attraction only
[D] high escape velocity of air molecule only

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Moon is having no atmosphere because of its size and low gravitational attraction.
The gas molecules outside the moon are low. Light gases and weak gravitational energy make low
escape velocity around the moon. So there is no atmosphere around the moon

Q.115) Which one of the following is the correct angle between the incident and reflected rays
when a ray of light incident normally on a plane mirror?
[A] 180°
[B] 90°
[C] 450
[D] 00

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The angle between incident and the reflected ray will be 0 degrees. The angle between
the incident ray and the mirror is called angle of incidence while the angle between reflected ray and
the normal is called angle of reflection.

Q.116) The distance which compression or a rarefaction travels per unit of time gives _________ .
[A] The density of sound wave
[B] Speed of sound
[C] Wavelength of sound
[D] Frequency of sound

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Speed of sound measures the compression or a rarefaction that travels per unit of time.
 Q.117) In the context of LED what does D stand for?
[A] Disk
[B] Diode
[C] Decode
[D] Desk

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The full form of LED is Light Emitting Diode.

Q.118) Which one of the following reactions is the main cause of the energy radiation from the
Sun?
[A] Fusion reaction
[B] Fission reaction
[C] Chemical reaction
[D] Diffusion reaction

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Fusion reactions constitute the fundamental energy source of stars, including the Sun.

Q.119) Common salt or table salt is part of our daily diet. However, it is also a basic raw
material for many industries. Common salt can be converted into important and useful
industrial chemicals mentioned except one. Identify that
[A] Sodium nitrate (used in the fertilizer industry)
[B] Sodium sulphate (used in making glass)
[C] Sodium peroxide (to make hydrogen peroxide)
[D] Sodium oxide (used in making paints)

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Its major industrial products are caustic soda and chlorine; salt is used in many industrial
processes including the manufacture of polyvinyl chloride, plastics, paper pulp and many other products.
 It is also used in preparation of Sodium nitrate (used in the fertilizer industry), Sodium sulphate (used in making
glass) and Sodium peroxide (to make hydrogen peroxide).

Q.120) Black lead is

[A] charcoal
[B] soot
[C] lead
[D] graphite

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Graphite, archaically referred to as plumbago, is a crystalline form of the element
carbon with its atoms arranged in a hexagonal structure. It occurs naturally in this form and is the
most stable form of carbon under standard conditions. Under high pressures and temperatures it
converts to diamond

Q.121) Petroleum is a mixture of

[A] alkanes
[B] cycloalkanes
[C] aromatic hydrocarbons
[D] All of these

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Petroleum is a mixture of a very large number of different hydrocarbons; the most
commonly found molecules are alkanes (paraffins), cycloalkanes (naphthenes), aromatic
hydrocarbons, or more complicated chemicals like asphaltenes.

Q.122) Which of the following bonds is the weakest?

[A] Coordinate bond
[B] Hydrogen bond
[C] van der Waals‘ forces
[D] Covalent bond

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A more general theory of van der Waals forces has also been developed. The main
characteristics of van der Waals forces are: They are weaker than normal covalent and ionic
bonds. Van der Waals forces are additive and cannot be saturated.

Q.123) 221Fr87 → ABi83 + 2α particles. What is the value of A?

[A] 214
[B] 211
[C] 213
[D] 215

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Given that,
The mass number, A = 221
Atomic number, Z = 87
From the above explanation, we know that the reaction of alpha decay can be expressed
221Fr87 → 221 - 2x4Bi87 - 2x2 + 2α
Hence in our case, the value of A and Z after alpha decay can be predicted by equating the number of
nucleons before and after alpha-decay
i.e., 221 = A + 2 x 4 ⇒ A = 213

Q.124) As its cools, olive oil slowly solidifies and forms a solid over a wide range of temperature
which term best describes this solid’
[A] ionic
[B] Covalent network
[C] Metallic
[D] Molecular crystals

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Molecular crystals are substances that have relatively weak intermolecular binding,
such as dry ice (solidified carbon dioxide), solid forms of the noble gases (e.g., argon, krypton, and
xenon), and crystals of numerous organic compounds.

Q.125) Which Scientist discovered the absolute scale of temperature?

[A] Charles
[B] Boyle
[C] Kelvin
[D] Gay-Lussac.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In 1848, William Thomson (1824–1907), later to become Lord Kelvin, developed a
thermodynamic absolute temperature scale that was independent of the measuring material.
Q.126) Why India is considered as a republic?
[A] Head of State is elected
[B] It gained independence on 15th August 1947
[C] It has its own written constitution
[D] It is having a Parliamentary form of Government

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A republic is a form of government in which country is considered a "public matter" ,
not private concern or property of rulers, & where offices of states are subsequently directly or
indirectly elected or appointed rather than inherited. In modern times, a common simplified definition
of a republic is a government where head of state is not a monarch.

Q.127) Which of the following union territory's MLAs do not participate in the election of the
President of India?
[A] Lakshadweep
[B] Chandigarh
[C] Puducherry
[D] both a and b

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Members of the Delhi and Puducherry Legislature participate only in the election of
President.

Q.128) Who was the first woman Chief Minister of any state in India?
[A] Mrs. Fatima Biwi
[B] Mrs. Vijay Laxmi Pandit
[C] Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani
[D] Mrs. Durga Banerjee

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The first female to become chief minister was Sucheta Kripalani of the Indian National
Congress party, who sworn in on 2 October 1963 as chief minister of Uttar Pradesh.

Q.129) The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution for India was made in response to
which of the following events?
[A] Minto Morley Reforms
[B] Montague Chelmsford Reforms
[C] Simon Commission
[D] First Round Table Conference

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Simon Commission was appointed under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon in
November 1927. It was appointed by the British government to report on the working of the Indian
constitution established by the Government of India Act of 1919.

Q.130) Consider the following statements related to elections in Panchayat .

(1) The minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats is 21 years.
(2) Chairperson and other members of a panchayat elected directly or indirectly have the voting right.
Which of the above statement’s is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The chairperson and other members of a panchayat elected directly or indirectly have
voting rights.21 is the years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.

Q.131) Which of the following Union Territories of India has the highest number of Lok Sabha seats?
[A] Jammu and Kashmir
[B] Delhi (The National Capital Territory of Delhi)
[C] Puducherry
[D] Ladakh

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Delhi (The National Capital Territory of Delhi).
 The Lok Sabha or the House of people has a maximum strength of 550 members (up to
January 2020 it had 552 members).
 The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 abolished the two additional members
who were appointed from the Anglo-Indian community.
 A candidate for membership of the Lok Sabha must be a citizen of India and not less than 25
years of age. The tenure of the Lok Sabha is five years.
 The Leader of Opposition is the politician who leads the official opposition in either House
of the Parliament. i.e Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.

Q.132) Consider the following statements about seat of Supreme Court:

1. The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court.
2. The Constitution also authorises Parliament to appoint other place or places as seat of the Supreme
Court.
Which of the above statement’s is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court. But, it also
authorises the chief justice of India to appoint other place or places as seat of the Supreme Court. He
can take decision in this regard only with the approval of the President. Hence statement 2 is
incorrect.

Q.133) Consider the following statements about the Article 15 of the Indian Constitution:
(1) Article 15 mentions that there shall not be any discrimination against citizens only on the grounds
of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or residence.
(2) Women and children, SC/ST, educationally and socially backward classes of citizens are
exceptions of Article 15.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Article 15 states that there shall not be any discrimination against citizens only on the
grounds of race, religion, caste, sex or place of birth (discrimination on other grounds is allowed).
There is no mention of descent and residence in Article 15. Statement 1 is incorrect. But, Descent and
Residence have been inserted in Article 16.
Article 15 further states that;
1. No discrimination in giving Access to shops, Public restaurants, hotels and places of public
entertainment — applicable to state.
2. No discrimination in Use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats maintained by state funds for general
public. Applies to both citizens and state.
Exceptions of Article 15 are women and children, SC/ST, educationally and socially backward classes
of citizens,

Q.134) A citizen's freedom of speech and expression may be subjected to reasonable restriction
on the grounds of all except:
[A] sovereignty of India
[B] public order
[C] contempt of court
[D] unbecoming criticism

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Answer D is correct.

Q.135) Which of the following is not matched correctly?

[A] Forest Conservation Act: 1980
[B] Wildlife Protection Act: 1974
[C] Public Representation Act: 1951
[D] Civil Duties Protection Act: 1955

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The features of Wildlife Protection Act 1972 include establishment of Wildlife
Sanctuaries, National Parks. It also includes prohibition on hunting of endangered species and
provides licenses for the sale, transfer and possession of the wildlife species.

Q.136) When was the 'Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act' passed?
[A] 1976
[B] 1972
[C] 1974
[D] 1971

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: [23rd December, 1971.] An Act to prevent insults to national honour. 1. Short title
and extent.

Q.137) If there is a dispute in the presidential election it will be referred whom among the following?
[A] Chief Election Commissioner
[B] Supreme Court
[C] Parliament
[D] Vice President

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Article 71 of the Constitution provides that disputes arising out of the election of the
President or Vice-President shall be decided by the Supreme Court.

Q.138) Which of the following is/are a part of Directive Principles of the State Policy?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings &forced labour.
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks
& of other drugs which are injurious to health.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Statement I is a Fundamental Right under article 23 of Part III of the constitution.
According to Article 23 "Traffic in human beings and the beggar and other similar forms of forced
labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in
accordance with the law". Statement 2 corresponds to Directive Principles of State Policy under
Article 47 under Part IV of the Constitution. According to Article 47 it is duty of the State to raise the
level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health. The State shall regard the
raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public
health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about
prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs
which are injurious to health. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.139) The total amount of income from economic activities across the country in a year is
called ........
[A] Disposable income
[B] National income
[C] Personal income
[D] Private Income

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The total amount of income from economic activities across the country in a year is
called national income. This income includes wages, interest, rent, and profit.

Q.140) Which one of the following Economists proposed the LPG Model of economic Development
in India?
[A] Y.B. Reddy
[B] K.V. Karnath
[C] Manmohan Singh
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Economy of India had undergone significant policy shifts in the beginning of the
1990s. This New Model of Economic Reforms is commonly known as the LPG or Liberalization,
Privatization and Globalization Model. LPG Model of Economic Development in India was proposed
by Dr Manmohan Singh, Economist and Finance Minister at that time.

Q.141) The combination of stagnation and inflation is known as _____.

[A] Stagflation
[B] Cost-push inflation
[C] Demand-pull inflation
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The term stagflation, a portmanteau of stagnation and inflation, was first coined
during a period of inflation and unemployment in the United Kingdom. The United Kingdom
experienced an outbreak of inflation in the 1960s and 1970s.

Q.142) The base year to calculate CPI-AL is

[A] 1980-81
[B] 1986-87
[C] 2001-02
[D] 2003-04

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The base year to calculate CPI-AL is 1986-87 and 260 items are included in the
index.

Q.143) Oudh Commercial Bank was founded in _______.

[A] 1913
[B] 1917
[C] 1894
[D] 1881

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Oudh Commercial Bank, the first bank with limited liability managed by Indians, was
founded in 1881.

Q.144) As against a target of 4 percent the average annual growth rate of first four years of the
12th Five Year Plan period (2012-17) in Agriculture and allied sector was
[A] 3.0%
[B] 1.6%
[C] 3.5%
[D] 2.5%

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Agriculture Sector grew by an average 1.6 percent per annum in first four years of the
ongoing Five Year Plan (2012-17) as against the targeted 4 percent annual growth due to lower
production.

Q.145) Budget is an instrument of

[A] monetary policy of the government
[B] commercial policy of the government
[C] fiscal policy of the government
[D] money-saving policy of the government

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is fiscal policy of the government. The budget is an instrument of
fiscal policy of the government. The purpose of a budget is to plan, organize, track, and improve your
financial situation.

Q.146) EXIM Bank was set up

[A] January 1,1982
[B] April 15, 1980
[C] September, 1993
[D] October, 1975

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In January, 1982 recognising the importance of exports in India's development
programmes, the Government of India set up the Export-Import Bank of India as a statutory
corporation owned completely by the Union Government.

Q.147) Variation in margin requirement —

[A] Quantitative credit control
[B] Qualitative credit control
[C] Both (A) and (B)
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The RBI controls the money supply in the economy in various ways. The tools used by
the Central bank to control the money supply can be quantitative or qualitative. ... Hence, it is clear
that the Margin requirement of loan is not a quantitative instrument for credit control by the Central
Bank.

Q.148) Which of the following tools are used by RBI to maintain money supply in the
economy?
1. Statutory liquidity ratio
2. Repo Rate
3. Bank Rate
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: All of the above are used to maintain money supply in the economy. They are
quantitative measures for the same.

Q.149) Who regulates the market in agricultural products in India?

[A] Essential Commodities Act, 1955
[B] Agricultural Produce Market Committee
[C] a Produce (Grading and Marketing) Act, 1973
[D] Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food Products Order, 1973

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) is a statutory market committee
constituted by State Governments in respect of trade in certain notified agricultural products, under
the Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act.

Q.150) World Bank President Jim Yong Kim announced whom to be the Chief Economist
and Senior VP of the WB?
[A] Kaushik Basu
[B] Paul Romer
[C] Amartya Sen
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: World Bank President Jim Yong Kim announced American economist Paul
Romer will succeed Kaushik Basu as the Chief Economist and Senior VP of the World Bank.
 Romer‘s appointment will take effect from September 2016; he is currently NYU professor
and director of the University‘s Marron Institute of Urban Management.
 WB comprises two institutions IBRD and IDA and was created in 1944 along with the IMF.

Q.151) The following questions consist of two words each, that have a certain relationship with each
other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the letter pair that has the same relationship as
the originaly pair of words.
Bud : Flower : : ?
[A] Clay : Mud
[B] Sapling : Tree
[C] River : Glacier
[D] Bird : Tree`

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: As 'Bud' grows and becomes a 'Flower' Similarly, 'Sapling' grows and becomes a
'Tree'.

Q.152) The following questions consist of two words each, that have a certain relationship with each
other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the letter pair that has the same relationship as
the originaly pair of words.
Ideas : Brain
[A] Literature : Author
[B] Clouds : Ocean
[C] Money : Bank
[D] Planets : Earth

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'ideas' are stored in 'Brain'and 'Money' is stored in 'Bank'.

Q.153) This i Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.
[A] 6
[B]24
[C]64
[D] 120

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Remaining numbers are divisible by 4.

Q.154) In the following questions, find the odd word/number/letters/number pair from the given
alternatives.
[A] Morning
[B] Noon
[C] Afternoon
[D] Night

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Night is the only one where the moon is in sky. The rest timing is releted with sun.

Q.155) P is the father of Q and R is the son of S. T is the brother of P. Q is the sister of R. How is S
related to T?
P, Q
[A] Brother-in-law
[B] Daughter
[C] Sister-in-law
[D] Brother

Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the question, the following family chart will be followed. And according to the figure, S
is sister-in-law of T.
Q.156) D is son of C and brother of E. E is niece of F. C is the sister of B and aunt of A. The father of
B has two kids, a son and a daughter. If A is the son of F , then how F is related to C?
D, C
[A] Cousin
[B] Aunt
[C] Sister - in - law
[D] Sister

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: As the statements are given in the question, we get the following diagram.

According to the family chart, F is sister-in-law of C

Q.157) Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
1,2,5,?,677
[A] 11
[B]25
[C]26
[D] 95

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The logic is square of previous number in the series +1 :
(1) ² +1 = 2; (2)² +1 = 5 ; (5)² +1 = 26
So, the correct option is C.

Q.158) Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
14+4÷ 5-18 ×2=25
[A] ÷ and +
[B] × and +
[C] × and -
[D] ÷ and ×

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: After interchanging the sign the equation will satisfy the × and ÷ condition
14+4 ×5-18÷2 = 25
14+20-9= 25
25=25

Q.159) Six employees R1, R2, R3, R4, R5 and R6 are sitting around a circular table facing towards
the centre (not necessarily in the same order). R5 is third to the left of R3. R2 is to the immediate left
of R4. R1 is to the immediate left of R5. Which of the following statements is incorrect about R6?
[A] R4 is second to the left of R6
[B] R6 is between R3 and R1
[C] R2 is sitting opposite to R6
[D] R5 is to the immediate right of R6

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: This is absolutely wrong that R5 is to the immediate right of R6.
Q.160) Five movies F1, F2, F3, F4 and F5 (not necessarily in the same order) are displayed from
Monday to Friday. Onlyone movie is displayed on one day. Eachmovie is displayed only one time.
Movie F1 is displayed on Monday. Two movies are displayed between F4 and F5. F2 is displayed just
one day after F5. Which movie is displayed on Wednesday?
[A] F2
[B] F3
[C] F4
[D] F5

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: F2 movie is displayed on Wednesday.

Q.161) Five balls L1, L2, L3, L4 and L5 are kept one above the other (not necessarily in the same
order). L1 is just above L5 and just below L4. L2 is just above L3 and just below L5. How many balls
are above L2?
[A] 2
[B] 3
[C]4
[D] 1

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Top L4 - L1 - L5 - L2 - L3 Bottom
There are 3 balls above L2

Q.162) If X stands on his head with his face towards south, to which direction will his left hand point?
[A] East
[B] West
[C] North
[D] South

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: According to question the left hand would point towards West.
Q.163) Raja walks slower then Raghu and Raghu walks as fast as Guru and Krishna walks faster than
Guru. Who walks the fastest?
[A] Raghu
[B] Raja
[C] Krishna
[D] Both Raghu and Guru

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Arrangement in descending order,
Krishna > Guru > Raghu > Raja
Hence, Krishna is the fastest from all of them.

Q.164) Which diagram represents the relationship between Women, Mothers and Engineers?
[A]

[B]

[C]

[D]

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: From above given question , we can say that
All mothers are women.
Some women are mothers.
Some mothers may be engineers.
From above it is clear that option ( D ) represents the best relationship
between Women, Mothers and Engineers. As shown in given venn - diagram .
Q.165) Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden/ embedded.

[A]1
[B]2
[C]3
[D] 4

Correct Answer: D
Explanation:

Q.166) In a hostel, there are 120 students and food stock is for 45 days. If 30 new students join the
hostel, in how many days will the complete stock be exhausted ?
[A] 38
[B] 40
[C] 32
[D] 36

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Let food stock will be exhausted in x days .
Given, m1 = 120, D1 = 45
M2 = 120 + 30 = 150
and D2 = ?
Then, using M1D1 = M2D2
⇒ 120 x 45 = 150 x D2
∴ D2 = 120 x 45/120 = 36

Q.167) If 5 boys take 7 h to pack 35 toys, how many boys can pack 65 toys in 3 h?
[A] 26
[B] 39
[C] 45
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Given, M1 = 5
M2 = ?
T1 = 7
T2 = 3
W1= 35 and W2 = 65
According to the formula, M1T1W2 = M2T2W1
= > 5 x 7 x 65 = M2 X 3 x 35
M2 = 5×7×6535×3=653boys

Q.168) Pipe A can fill a tank in 45 hrs and pipe B can fill it in 36 hrs. If both the pipes are opened in
the empty tank. In how many hours will it be full?
[A] 10 hr
[B] 15 hr
[C] 20 hr
[D] 28 hr

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Part filled A in 1 hr= (1/45)
Part filled B in 1 hr= (1/36)
Part filled by (A+B) together in 1 hr=(1/45)+(1/36)=1/20

So, The tank will be full in 20 hr.

Q.169) A boat moves downstream at 1 km in 5 minutes and upstream at 1 km in 12 minutes.What is

the speed of current?
[A] 4.5 km/h
[B] 3.5 km/h
[C] 2 km/h
[D] 2.5 km/h

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sd = 12 km/h
Su = 5 km/h
Speed of current = (12 - 5)/2 = 3.5 km/h

Q.170) A train runs with a speed of 200 km/hour. What will be its speed in m/sec?
[A] 50 m/sec
[B] 55.55 m/sec
[C] 48 m/sec
[D] 66.66 m/sec

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Speed in km/ hour =200
Speed in m/sec = 200 x 5/18 = 500/9 m/sec = 55.55 m/sec

Q.171) The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60º and the foot of the ladder
is 12.4 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is :
[A] 14.8 m
[B] 24.8 m
[C] 6.2 m
[D] 12.4 m

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Consider the diagram is shown above where PR represents the ladder and RQ represent
the wall.
Cos 60° = PQ / PR
⇒ 1 / 2 = 12.4 / PR
⇒ PR = 2 × 12.4 = 24.8 m

Q.172) The speed of boat upstream and speed of boat downstream are 7 km/h and 13 km/h,
respectively. Then the speed of stream and the speed of boat in still water is ?
[A] 10 km/h and 3 km/h
[B] 15 km/h and 9 km/h
[C] 20 km/h and 6 km/h
[D] 40 km/h and 12 km/h

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Rate in still water=[(1/2)(u+v)] km/h
Rate of current=[(1/2)(u-v)] km/h
where u= speed of boat in downstream
v=speed of boat in upstream

Speed of boat in still water=[(1/2)(7+13)] =10 km/h

Speed of the stream =[(1/2)(13-7)]=3 km/h

Q.173) 20 years ago my age was 1/3 of what it is now. What is my present age ?
[A] 30 years
[B] 25 years
[C] 35 years
[D] 40 years

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Let my present age be x years.
∵ x - 20 = x / 3
⇒ 3x - 60 = x
⇒ 2x = 60
∴ My present age = x = 30 years

Q.174) A sum at simple interest of 131/2% per annum amounts to Rs. 3080 in 4 yr Find the sum.
[A] 1550
[B] 1680
[C] 2000
[D] 1850

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Let sum = P
Then, SI = (P x R x T)/100
= {P x (27/2) x 4} / 100
= {P x 54} / 100 = 27P / 50
∴ Amount = P + 27P / 50 = 77P/50
According to the question 77P/50 = 3080
∴ P = (3080 x 50)/77 = Rs. 2000
Q.175) The compound interest on a sum of money at 5% per annum for 3 years is Rs. 2522. What
would be the simple interest on this sum at the same rate and for the same period ?
[A] 2500
[B] 2400
[C] 2450
[D] 2350

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Given that , CI = Rs. 2522 , r = 5% , t = 3 years
We can find required answer with the help of given formula ,

rt
SI = CI ×
r t
100 1+ −1
100

2522 × 5 × 3
SI =
5 3
100 1+ −1
100

2522 × 5 × 3
SI =
9261
100 −1
8000

2522 × 5 × 3
∴ SI = × 8000 = Rs. 2400.
100 × 1261

Q.176) The HCF and LCM of two numbers m and n are respectively 6 and 210. If m + n = 72, then
1/m + 1/n is equal to
[A] 1/35
[B] 3/35
[C] 5/37
[D] 2/35

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: We have, m x n = 6 x 210 = 1260
∴ 1/m + 1/n = (m + n)/mn = 72/1260 = 4/70 = 2/35

Q.177) Recently, a ministerial group has approved a Rs 210 Crore bid by Nandal Finance and Leasing
Pvt. Ltd to acquire which of the following?
[A] BEML Limited
[B] Central Electronics Ltd
[C] Bharat Electronics
[D] Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Central Electronics Ltd. A ministerial group has approved a
Rs.210-crore bid by Nandal Finance and Leasing Pvt. Ltd to acquire state-owned Central Electronics
Ltd. This is the second strategic stake sale by the government after Air India.
Q.178) Which of the following states' government has started a project called ‗Samhati‘?
[A] Odisha
[B] Telangana
[C] Chhattisgarh
[D] Andhra Pradesh

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Odisha launches project 'Samhati' to teach tribals in their own languages. In
elementary school, the new National Education Policy emphasises the importance of teaching in the
mother tongue.

Q.179) Who is the author of the book ‗Seven Heroes of 1971‘?

[A] Man Aman Singh Chhina
[B] Atul Chandra
[C] Chetan Bhagat
[D] Kulpreet Yadav

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Man Aman Singh Chhina

Q.180) Who among the following has been awarded the Woman of the year award by World
Athletics?
[A] Saina Nehwal
[B] P.V. Sindhu
[C] Anju Bobby George
[D] Ashwini Nachappa

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Legendary Indian athlete, Anju Bobby George has been bestowed with the Woman of
the Year Award by World Athletics for grooming talent in the country and for her advocacy of gender
equality.

Q.181) PM Narendra Modi has laid the foundation of the Delhi-Dehradun Economic Corridor in
December 2021, What is the estimated cost of the project?
[A] Rs 8300 Crores
[B] Rs 9000 Crores
[C] Rs 6200 Crores
[D] Rs 5000 Crores

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Prime Minister Narendra Modi has recently laid foundation stone for Delhi-
Dehradun Economic Corridor which would be constructed at a cost of Rs.8300 crore. This is expected
to bring down the travel time between the two places to 2.5 hours from the existing 6 hours. The
corridor would have 7 major interchanges for connectivity and would have Asia's largest wildlife
elevated corridor for a stretch of 12 kilometres.

Q.182) Which of the following organizations has approved a loan of $135m to improve electricity
supply in West Bengal?
[A] NDB
[B] ADB
[C] IMF
[D] World Bank

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Answer: D. World Bank
Q.183) Who among the following has been named as the first woman Chairperson of Walt Disney?
[A] Sophie Wagon
[B] Bob Iger
[C] Kamya Patrick
[D] Susan Arnold

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Susan Arnold. Walt Disney named Susan Arnold as its
Chairperson on 3 December 2021. She is the first woman to hold this position after 98 years. She will
replace current chairman Bob Iger on December 31.

Q.184) Who among the following has been appointed as the Chairman of National Asset
Reconstruction Company (NARCL)?
[A] Pradip Shah
[B] Suraj Mishr
[C] Sanjay Jain
[D] Naveen Gupta

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pradip Shah, founder of IndAsia Fund Advisors, has been appointed chairman of
National Asset Reconstruction Company (NARCL) while Aditya Birla Asset Reconstruction
Company managing director Sanjay Jain will be the chief executive of India Debt Resolution
Company (IDRCL), the privately owned asset management company

Q.185) Kazhuveli wetland has been declared as Bird Sanctuary. Kazhuveli Wetland is located in
which of the following states?
[A] Kerala
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Telangana
[D] Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Kazhuveli wetland situated in Villupuram district of Tamil Nadu has been
declared as the 16th Bird Sanctuary by Surpiya Sahu, Environment and Forest Secretary, at the
Minister of Environment Forest and Climate Change.

Q.186) Who has inaugurated the All India Institute of Medical Sciences Gorakhpur?
[A] Amit Shah
[B] Yogi Adityanath
[C] Narendra Modi
[D] Mansukh Mandaviya

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Tuesday inaugurated the All India Institute of
Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh.

Q.187) With which of the following organizations the government has inked two loan agreements of
Rs 2,074 crore for an affordable housing project in Tamil Nadu and a water sanitation programme in
Uttarakhand?
[A] IMF
[B] NDB
[C] ADB
[D] World Bank

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The government has inked two loan agreements of Rs 2,074 crore with Asian
Development Bank (ADB) for an affordable housing project in Tamil Nadu and a water sanitation
programme in Uttarakhand, a release said on Tuesday.

Q.188) Who is the author of the book ‗1971: Charge of the Gorkhas and other Stories‘?
[A] Rachna Bisht Rawat
[B] Amit Ranjan
[C] Sanjay Baru
[D] Ayaz Memon

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A new book that unearths true stories of the 1971 Indo-Pak war, '1971: Charge of the
Gorkhas and Other Stories, written by Rachna Bisht Rawat, was released.

Q.189) Which of the following states has approved to implement Atma Nirbhar Krishak Integrated
Development Scheme?
[A] Maharashtra
[B] Uttar Pradesh
[C] Jharkhand
[D] Gujarat

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh. The Uttar Pradesh Cabinet has approved Atma
Nirbhar Krishak Integrated Development Scheme aimed at boosting the agriculture sector. The
scheme will be implemented from FY 2021-22.

Q.190) Piramal Realty, the real estate arm of the Piramal Group has roped in which of the following
as its brand ambassador?
[A] Farhan Akhtar
[B] Abhay Deol
[C] Arjun Rampal
[D] Aamir Khan

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Piramal Realty, the real estate arm of the Piramal Group, has roped in actor Farhan
Akhtar as a brand ambassador for its portfolio of residential projects in Mumbai and Thane.

Q.191) Recently, 21st India-Russia Annual Summit was held in New Delhi. How many agreements
were signed between India and Russia?
[A] 25
[B] 21
[C] 24
[D] 28

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 28 agreements/MoUs signed during the 21st India-Russia Annual Summit in New
Delhi today.

Q.192) NITI Aayog has launched ‗e-Sawaari India Electric Bus Coalition‘ in partnership with which
of the following?
[A] BEL
[B] WRI India
[C] CESL
[D] Both b & c
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: NITI Aayog has launched 'e-Sawaari India Electric Bus Coalition' in partnership
with Convergence Energy Service Ltd (CESL) and World Resources Institute, India (WRI
India).

Q.193) Who will receive the Royal Gold Medal 2022 by the Royal Institute of British Architects
(RIBA) the world‘s highest honour for architecture?
[A] P.C. Sreeram
[B] Balkrishna Doshi
[C] Raj Rewal
[D] Mani Ratnam

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Doshi is awarded the RIBA Royal Gold Medal 2022. On a crisp October morning,
Balkrishna Vithaldas Doshi received a phone call from Simon Allford, current president of the Royal
Institute of British Architects, who informed the 94-year-old architect that he'd been awarded the
RIBA Royal Gold Medal 2022.

Q.194) The Union Cabinet has approved the funding and implementation of which of the following
inter-linking of rivers project?
[A] Ken-Betwa
[B] Ghaghra-Yamuna
[C] Kosi-Ghaghra
[D] Gandak-Ganga

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, today has
approved the funding and implementation of Ken-Betwa inter-linking of rivers project.

Q.195) Who is the author of the book ‗The Midway Battle: Modi‘s Roller Coaster Second Term‘?
[A] Vipul Verma
[B] Shikhar Sood
[C] Gautam Chintamani
[D] Atul Chandra

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Vice President (VP) M. Venkaiah Naidu launched a book titled ‘The Midway Battle:
Modi’s Roller-coaster Second Term’ authored by Gautam Chintamani and published by
Bloomsbury India at Upa-Rashtrapati Nivas, New Delhi.

Q.196) Which of the following ministries is implementing the umbrella scheme named ‗Atal Vayo
Abhyudaya Yojana‘?
[A] Ministry of Minority Affairs
[B] Ministry of Women and Child Development
[C] Ministry of Rural Development
[D] Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is implementing an Umbrella
scheme namely Atal Vayo Abhyudaya Yojana (AVYAY). The scheme aims for welfare of Senior
Citizens across the country. This has several components, namely Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY),
SACRED, IPSrC, SAPSrC among others.
Q.197) Who among the following has become the third player in the world to take all 10 wickets in an
innings of the cricket match?
[A] Asif Ali
[B] Ravichandran Ashwin
[C] Ajaz Patel
[D] Tim Southee

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: India-born left-arm spinner of the New Zealand cricket team, Ajaz Patel, scripted
history on December 4 as he became the third player to take all 10 wickets in an innings.

Q.198) Recently, the 11th edition of Exercise EKUVERIN was held between India and which of the
following countries?
[A] Mauritius
[B] Sri Lanka
[C] Mongolia
[D] Maldives

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 11th Edition of Exercise EKUVERIN between India & Maldives will be conducted at
Kadhdhoo Island, Maldives from 06 to 19 December 2021.

Q.199) The National Commission for women has launched a pan-India capacity-building programme
for women in politics. What is the name of the programme?
[A] Ending Violence against women
[B] She is a Changemaker
[C] It‘s about choice
[D] Women in leadership

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: National Commission for Women (NCW) launched a pan-India capacity building
programme called ―She is a Changemaker‖ on December 7, 2021.

Q.200) An intergovernmental organization based in Stockholm, Sweden, IDEA has appointed former
Chief Election Commissioner of India Sunil Arora as the Board of Advisors. What is the full form of
IDEA?
[A] India for Democracy and Electoral assistance
[B] Institute for Diplomatic Engagement Assistance
[C] International Democracy and Electoral Assistance
[D] International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Former chief election commissioner (CEC) Sunil Arora has been invited to join the
board of advisers at the International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance, also
known as International IDEA. IDEA has a 15-member board of advisers, all of whom are eminent
personalities from a wide variety of backgrounds.