Q.

1) In the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given word
Fictional
[A] Genuine
[B] Authentic
[C] Fanciful
[D] Real

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The meaning of word Fictional (Adjective) is: imaginary, unreal, fabricated, mythical
Its synonym should be: Fanciful

Q.2) In the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given word
Trivial
[A] Crucial
[B] Significant
[C] Vital
[D] Ordinary

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The meaning of word Trivial (Adjective) is: not important.
Its synonym should be: Ordinary.

Q.3) In the following questions, choose the word opposite ii meaning to the given word.
Impertinent
[A] Insolent
[B] Impudent
[C] Cheeky
[D] Courteous

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The meaning of word Impertinent (Adjective) is: Ill mannered, disrespectful.
It‘s antonym should be Courteous.

Q.4) In the following questions, choose the word opposite ii meaning to the given word.
Divulge
[A] Disseminate
[B] Dissemble
[C] Publicize
[D] Transmit

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The meaning of word Divulge (Verb) is: Reveal, make known. Its antonym should be:
Dissemble. e.g., disguise or conceal

Q.5) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom / Phrase underlined in the
sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
Mrs. Roy keeps an open house on Saturday evening parties— you‘ll find all kinds of people
there.
[A] keeps the doors of the house open
[B] keeps the gates open for a few persons
[C] welcomes all members
[D] welcomes a select group of people
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Idiom 'keep an open office' means: to have one's house in a state or condition in which
visitors or guests are welcomed at any time.

Q.6) In the following questions, four Alternatives are given for the idiom / phrase underlined in the
sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the
The man changed colours when I allocation of funds.
[A] became different
[B] got numbed
[C] turned happy
[D] get motivated

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Phrase 'change colour' means: to give a completely different form and to cause to be
different etc.

Q.7) In the following questions, four Alternatives are given for the idiom / phrase underlined in the
sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the
We cannot depend on him for this assignment as it needs careful handling and he is like a bull
in a China shop

[A] a felicitous person

[B] a clumsy person
[C] a tactful person
[D] a no-nonsense person

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Idiom 'bull in a China Shop' means: one who is aggressive and clumsy in a situation
that requires delicacy and care.

Q.8) In the following questions, four Alternatives are given for the idiom / phrase underlined in the
sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the
The mother always insists on keeping the house spick and span
[A] open
[B] locked
[C] safe
[D] tidy

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Idiom ' spick and span' means: totally clean/organized

Q.9) In questions, out four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted of the given
words/sentence.
Detailed Plan of journey:
[A] Travelogue
[B] Tavel kit
[C] Schedule
[D] Itinerary

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Travelogue
Q.10) In questions, out four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted of the given
words/sentence.
One who cannot be corrected:
[A] Incurable
[B] Incorigible
[C] Hardened
[D] Invulnerable

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Incorrigible is a person not able to be changed or reformed.

Q.11) The ____ of the 'chief was ______ upon him.

[A] title, bestowed
[B] name, dismissed
[C] title, imposed
[D] appointment, thrown

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: title, bestowed

Q.12) All orders must ______ the rules.

[A] conform to
[B] conforms to
[C] conforming with
[D] conforms with

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The phrase means to reach the necessary stated standard

Q.13) She failed to _______ to her name.

[A] lineup
[B] shine up
[C] keep up
[D] rise up

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: ‗Keep up' means move or progress at the same rate.

Q.14) As the doctor _______ into the room, the nurse handed him the temperature chart of the
patient.
[A] came
[B] was coming
[C] comes
[D] is coming

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Came‘ is the correct use of tense

Q.15) The economic ________ has affected our sales tremendously.

[A] showdown
[B] Slowdown
[C] crackdown
[D] touchdown

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Slowdown‘ means a decline or a reduction.

Q.16) My husband has studied only . . . . . . . S.S.C.

[A] till
[B] up to
[C] for
[D] since

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: My husband has studied only up to S.S.C.

Q.17) My monthly income is . . . . . . . 1,000,000/- Rs.

[A] down
[B] below
[C] under
[D] more

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: My monthly income is below 1,000,000/- Rs.

Q.18) Neha was angry . . . . . . herself for making such a stupid mistake.
[A] about
[B] with
[C] on
[D] for

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Neha was angry with herself for making such a stupid mistake.

Q.19) New series . . . . . . already . . . . . .

[A] have been , launched
[B] launched
[C] has been , launched
[D] are launching

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: New series has been already launched.

Q.20) News . . . . . good.

[A] is
[B] has
[C] are
[D] must

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: News is good.

Q.21) No sooner . . . . . the sun . . . . . , than the birds start chirping.

[A] did , rise
[B] is , rise
[C] do , rise
[D] does , rise

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: No sooner did the sun rise , than the birds start chirping.
Q.22) No sooner did sir enter the class, . . . . . . all the students stood up.
[A] when
[B] than
[C] then
[D] before

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: No sooner did sir enter the class, than all the students stood up.

Q.23) In the following ten Questions, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the
four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active
voice and mark.
Please give me your pen and take your seat
[A] You are warned to give me your pen and take your seat
[B] You are ordered to give me your pen and take your seat
[C] Let your pen given me and take your seat.
[D] You are requested to give me your pen and take your seat.

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: You are requested to give me your pen and take your seat.

Q.24) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active/ Passive Voice. Out of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice
and mark
The prisoner is known to have assaulted the warden earlier too.
[A] It is known that the warden has been assaulted by the prisoner earlier too
[B] It is known that the warden has assaulted the prisoner earlier too
[C] It is known that the prisoner has assaulted the warden earlier too.
[D] The warden was assaulted by the prisoner earlier too

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: It is known that the warden has been assaulted by the prisoner earlier too

Q.25) Narration Change

The father warned his son that he should be beware of him.
[A] The father warned his son, "beware of him !"
[B] The father warned his son, "Watch that chap !"
[C] The father warned his son, "Be careful about him."
[D] The father warned his son, "Don't fall into the trap."

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The father warned his son, "beware of him !"

Q.26) Which of the following two towns of Indus valley Civilization were located on the
bank of Ghagghar River?
[A] Harappa & Rojari
[B] Harappa & Mohen jo Dero
[C] Kalibanga and Banwali
[D] Rangpur and Surkotda

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Correct Answer: C [Kalibanga and Banwali]
Q.27) Which among the following sites of Indus Vally field‖ in the is considered as the oldest
―Ploughed world?
[A] Harappa
[B] Kalibangan
[C] Lothal
[D] Rangpur

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Kalibangan site is known for its unique fire altars and "world's earliest attested
ploughed field".

Q.28) Rigveda was written during which among the following ages?
[A] Stone age
[B] Copper age
[C] Iron age
[D] All the above

Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
RigVeda is known as the oldest religious text in the world. It is also known as ―First testament‖ of
mankind. It was composed around 1700 BC. Last hymns were composed between 1500-
1200 BC. It‘s a collection of hymns by a number of priest families. It is organized in 10 books which
are called Mandalas

Q.29) ―Gayatri Mantra‖ has been mentioned in which of the Vedas?

[A] Rigveda
[B] Samaveda
[C] Yajurveda
[D] Atharvaveda

Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Gayatri Mantra comes from the third Mandala of the Rigveda. This Mandala has 62 hymns, mainly
to Agni and Indra. It is one of the ―family books‖ (mandalas 2-
7), the oldest core of the Rigveda. This Mandala also mentions Kikats, a non-
Aryan tribe, which most scholars agree that was resident of somewhere in near Magadha in modern
Bihar.

Q.30) Tirthankara Parswanath‘s idol is recognized by which symbol?

[A] Lion
[B] Bull
[C] Tortoise
[D] Serpent

Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Tirthankara Parswanath was the 23rD Tirthankar who preached four teachings of Jainism: not to kill
, not to lie, not to steal and not to own property. His idol is recognized by the symbol of serpent.

Q.31) In which Buddhist council, Buddhism was divided into Sthaviravadins and Mahasanghikas?
[A] Second Buddhist council
[B] Third Buddhist council
[C] First Buddhist council
[D] Fourth Buddhist council
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: In the second Buddhist council, Buddhism was divided into Sthaviravadins and
Mahasanghikas.

Q.32) The Taxila or Takshashila was located between following two rivers ?
[A] Indus & Jhelum
[B] Jhelum & Chenab
[C] Chenab & Ravi
[D] Chenab & Beas

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Taxila or Takshashila was an ancient city in what is now northwestern Pakistan. It is an
important archaeological site and in 1980, was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site and situated
between Indus and Jhelum river.

Q.33) Before ascending the Maurya throne, Ashoka was the viceroy of which of the following?
[A] Taxilla
[B] Ujjain
[C] Pataliputra
[D] Kandhar

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Before ascending the Maurya throne, Ashoka was the viceroy of Taxila.

Q.34) Which Ashokan inscription elaborates the policy of Dhamma?

[A] Major rock edict IX
[B] Major rock edict XI
[C] Major rock edict XII
[D] Major rock edict X

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The Major rock edict XI elaborates the Ashoka‘s policy of Dhamma. It stresses the
respect for elders, abstain from killing animals and liberal towards friends.

Q.35) Fa-Hien who came to visit India during Gupta Period had the main motive of ?
[A] Establish trade relations between India and China
[B] Write a book on the life of Indian People
[C] Study the teachings of Gautam Buddha
[D] To spread Buddhism

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Fa-Hien was a Chinese Buddhist, was one of the pilgrims who visited India during the
reign of the Gupta emperor Chandragupta II. His main motive is to study the teachings of Gautama
Buddha.

Q.36) ‖Kaviraja‖ or King of poets was a title of ?

[A] Chandra Gupta Maurya
[B] Samudra Gupta
[C] Skand Gupta
[D] Ashoka

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: ‖Kaviraja‖ or King of poets was a title of Samudra Gupta.
Q.37) Who among the following was the author of Tamil Ramayanam or Ramavataram?
[A] Kamban
[B] Kuttan
[C] Nannaya
[D] Tikkana

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Ramavataram or Tamil Ramayanam is a Tamil epic authored by Kamban. It is based on
the Valmiki's Ramayana and describes the story of the life of Rama in Ayodhya

Q.38) Who was the famous author of Kitab-ul-Hind?

[A] Masan Nizami
[B] Minhaj-us-Siraj
[C] Al-Beruni
[D] Shams-e-siraj-Atif

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Al-Beruni was the first Muslim scholar to study India and its Brahmanical tradition. He
authored Kitab-ul-Hind in which he praises a very high degree of proficiency of Indians in
construction of Tanks and reservoirs at holy places.

Q.39) Who among the following called himself the Parrot of India or Tota-e-hind?
[A] Qutban
[B] Usman
[C] Amir Khasrau
[D] Amir Hasan

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Amir Khusrau is known as Parrot of India. He wrote numerous works, among them five
divans, which were. compiled at different periods in his life. He enjoyed the patronage of 7 Sultans
and was a disciple to Nizamuddin Aulia (Chisti Silsila Sufi Saint).

Q.40) Which of the following was not build during the reign of Shah Jahan?
[A] Shalimar garden (Lahore)
[B] Talkatora bagh (Delhi)
[C] Shalimar and Nishat gardens (Kashmir)
[D] Sheesh Mahal (Agra)

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Sheeshmahal and Mussaman Burj (Jasmine palace) was built at Agra in reign of Shah
Jahan along with Shalimar gardens near Lahore and Talkatora bagh in Delhi. While Shalimar and
Nishat gardens of Kashmir were laid during reign of Jahangir.

Q.41) Pietra Dura refers to?

[A] Divine light behind the head of kings in paintings.
[B] Calligraphic art of writting on buildings.
[C] Floral designs made of semi-precious stones.
[D] Garden layout in the vicinity of Mughal buildings.

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Pietra Dura refers to the floral design on walls of buildings made during Mughal era,
with semi precious stones like Taj Mahal (Agra), Tomb of Itmad ud Daula, Sheesh Mahal and Moti
Masjid. Hard and fine stones are used for inlay distinguished from the softer stones used in building.
Q.42) Which of the following were a consequence of 1857 revolt?
(1) End of Company's Rule
(2) Office of Secretary of State and Governor General was created
(3) Reorganization of Army

[A] Only (1) and (2) are correct

[B] Only (2) and (3) are correct
[C] Only (1) and (3) are correct
[D] All are correct

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: QueenVictoria'sproclamationof1853 marked the end East India Company's rule (1757-
1857) since direct rule British Crown was established. The seat of secretary of was set up in London
who was a member of Parliament (towards a responsible government) and as Queen's special
representative in India. The office Governor General was created by the Charter Act of with Lord
William Bentik as the first Governor General while the first Viceroy was Lord Canning.

Q.43) The second founder of the Maratha Kingdom was

[A] Tarabai
[B] Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath
[C] Peshwa Bajirao
[D] Shahu

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Balaji Vishwanath assisted a young Maratha Emperor Shahu to consolidate his grip on
a kingdom that had been racked by civil war and persistent attack by the Mughals under Aurangzeb.
He was called "the second founder of the Maratha State."

Q.44) Which was the oldest daily in India?

[A] Bengal Gazette
[B] Samachar Darpan
[C] Mumbai Samachar
[D] The Times of India

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Mumbai Samachar was the oldest daily in India. IT was launched by Fardoonji
Murzban on July 1, 1822.

Q.45) "At the stroke of midnight, when the world sleeps, India will awake to life and freedom,"
was said by
[A] Lord Mountbatten
[B] Dr, Rajendra Prasad
[C] Jawaharlal Nehru
[D] None of them

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru.
 These words were given by the first prime minister of India Pt Jawaharlal Nehru on the
eve of India's Independence, towards midnight on 14 August 1947.
o In his speech he mentioned, "at the stroke of midnight when the world sleeps, India
will awake to life and freedom".
o Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru was born in Allahabad on November 14, 1889.
o The famous book "The Discovery of India" is written by Pt Jawaharlal Nehru.
Q.46) Who is the Indian known as "Missile man of India"?
[A] A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
[B] Rabindranath Tagore
[C] Narinder Modi
[D] Jawaharlal Nehru

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam was born on 15 October 1931 to a Tamil
Muslim family in the pilgrimage centre of Rameswaram on Pamban Island, then in the Madras
Presidency and now in the State of Tamil Nadu.

Q.47) Local Self-Government institutions in India were strengthened in 1882 by

[A] George Barlow
[B] Lord Rippon
[C] Lord Curzon
[D] Lord Lytton

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Lord Ripon is known to have granted the Indians first taste of freedom by introducing
the Local Self Government in 1882. His scheme of local self government developed the Municipal
institutions which had been growing up in the country ever since India was occupied by the British
Crown.

Q.48) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

[A] Pitt‘s India Act - warren Hastings
[B] Doctrine or Lapse - Dalhousie
[C] vernacular Press Act - Curzon
[D] Ilbert Bill - Ripon

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Proposed by Lord Lytton, then viceroy of India (governed 1876–80), the act was
intended to prevent the vernacular press from expressing criticism of British policies—notably, the
opposition that had grown with the outset of the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–80).

Q.49) The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the

[A] Imposition of certain restriction to carry by the Indians
[B] Imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian language
[C] Removal or disqualifications imposed on the Indian Magistrates about the trial of the Europeans
[D] Removal or duty on imported cotton cloth

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The correct answer is the removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian
magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans.

Q.50) The first Factory Act for restricting the working hours of Women and children and
authorizing local government to make necessary rules was adopted during whose time?
[A] Lord Lytton
[B] Lord Bentinck
[C] Lord Ripon
[D] Lord Canning

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The First Factory Act was passed in 1881 during the time of Lord Ripon. It was passed
to improve the service condition of the factory workers in India. It fixed the working hours for women
and children above the age of seven years.
Q.51) In British India, what was the contention against the passage or the Public Safety Bill and
the Trade Disputes Bill amongst the revolutionaries?
1. The act gave more power to the British government and the Police against Indian revolutionaries
and freedom fighters.
2. It affected the civil liberthes of citizens and workers.
Which of the above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Act declared unlawful secondary action and any strike whose purpose was to
coerce the government of the day directly or indirectly.
In addition, incitement to participate in an unlawful strike was made a criminal offence, punishable
by imprisonment for up to two years; and the attorney general was empowered to sequester the assets
and funds of unions involved in such strikes.
It declared unlawful mass picketing which gave rise to the intimidation of a worker. 

Q.52) The Ghadar party was

1. A revolutionary organisation
2.Aiming at securing India‘s independence from British rule
3.Associated with Rashbehari Bose
4. Was founded in Punjab
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
[A] 1, 2 and 3 only
[B] 1 and 4 only
[C] 2, 3 and 4 only
[D] 1, 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Ghadar Party was an organisation founded by Punjabi Indians in the United States
and Canada with the aim of securing India's independence from British rule.
• Key members included Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Abdul Hafiz Mohamed Barakatullah,
Kartar Singh Sarabha and Rashbehari Bose.
• After the outheeak of World War 1, Ghadar Party members returned to Punjab to agitate for
rebellion alongside the Babbar Akali movement.
• In 1915, they conducted revolutionary activities in central Punjab and organised uprisings. Their
presence shook the hold of the British Empire and police surveillance in Punjabi villages increased in
an attempt to crush the rebellion.

Q.53) The Government of India had decided to headquarters of the convert the famous Ghadar
Party into a library and a museum. This famous place is known as
[A] Gandhar Ashram
[B] Mani Bhawan
[C] Shaantigram Ashra
[D] Yugantar Ashram

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Hindustan Association of the Pacific Coast known as the Ghadar Party was
founded in 1913 to free India from British slavery.
The headquarters of the Association Was established initially at 436 Hill Street. San Frandsco and
named ‗Yugantar Ashram‘
• The GOI decided in 2013 to convert this memorial into a library and museum.
• The Association began publishing a magazine, Ghadar (revolt), for free distribution.
The Ghadar publication exposed the British imperialism and called on the Indian people to unite arid
rise up against British rule and throw them out of India. The publication Ghadar, over a period of
time, became well known among Indians and the
Hindustan Association of the Pacific Coast itself became known as the Ghadar Party.

Q.54) The Ghadr part was motivated to wresthe freedom from the British due to which of these
events? Pick out the possible events that could have influenced their activism.
1. Komagata Maru Incident
2. Outheeak of First World War
Which of the above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Ghadr Party was a revolutionary group organized around a weekly newspaper The
Ghadr with its headquarters at San Frandsco and branches along the US coast and in the Far East.
These revolutionaries included mainly ex-soldiers and peasants who had migrated from the Punjab to
the USA and Canada in search of better employment opportunithes.
Their plans were encouraged by two events in 1914 the Maru incident and the outheeak of the First
World War.
Moving spirits behind the Ghadr Party were Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhagwan Singh, Kartar
Singh Saraba, Bark Bhai Parmanand. The Chiarites intended to Yring about a revolt in India.
Komagata Maru Incident: The importance of this event lies in the fact that it created an explosive
situation in the Punjab. Komagata Maru was the name of a ship which was carrying 370 passengers,
mainly Sikh and Punjabi Muslim would-be immigrants, from Singapore to Vancouver. They were
turned back by Canadian authorithes after two months of privation and uncertainty. It was generally
believed that the Canadian authorithes were influenced by the British Government. The ship finally
anchored at Calcutta in September 1914. The inmates refused to board the Punjab-bound train. In the
ensuing with the police at Budge near Calcutta, 22 persons died.
Inflamed by this and with the outheeak of the war, the Ghadr leaders decided to launch a violent
attack on British rule in India.
The revolutionary activity was earned out through the Ghadr Party in North America, Berrin
Committee in Europe and some scattere mutinies by Indian soldiers, such as the one in Singapore.

Q.55) The Home Rule Movement of 1916 did not emphasise

1. Revival of Swadeshi.
2. Participation of Indians in self- governing institutions for India.
3. Complete erosion of British sovereignty over India.
4. Separate electorates for all communithes of India.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Home Rule movement aimed to get self- government for India within the British
empire and not complete erosion of British sovereignty. The movement believed that freedom was the
natural right of all nations. They did not emphasise on separate electorates
Q.56) Consider the following statements about Indian Home Rule Movement.
1. The Home Rule Movement was the Indian response to the First World War.
2. Anglo-Indians and most of the Muslims supported Home Rule.
3. Russian Revolution of 1917 had an impact on the Home Rule Movement.
Which or the above statement(s) is/are correct?
[A] 1,2
[B] 1 only
[C] 1,3
[D] 2,3

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Home Rule Movement was the Indian response to the First World War.
Anglo-Indians, most of the Muslims and non-Brahmins from the South did not join as they felt Hone
Rule would mean rule of the Hindu majority, and that too mainly by the high caste. The Russian
Revolution or 1917 proved to be an added advantage for the Home Rule campaign.

Q.57) Which of these personalithes was/were associated with founding of the Home Rule
Movement (1916)?
1. Annie Besant 2. Madame Blavtasky 3. A.O. Hume 4. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 4 only
[C] 1 and4 only
[D] 1, 2and3only

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Two Home Rule Leagues were established, one by B.G. Tilak at Poona in April 1916
and the other by Mrs. Annie Besant at Madras in September 1916.
The aim of the Movement was to get self-government for India within the British Empire. It believed
freedom was the natural right of all nations.
Moreover, the leaders of the Home Movement thought that India's resources were not being used for
her needs.
The two Leagues cooperated with each other as well with the Congress and the Muslim League in
putting their demand for home rule.

Q.58) Consider the following about the Indian Home Rule movement:
1. It wanted complete independence from the British empire and establish a constitutional democracy
in India.
2. Gandhi boycotted the All India Home Rule League.
3. It worked as a joint movement of the Indian National Congress and the All India Muslim League.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 only
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Statement 1: Between 1916 and 1918, when the World War I was gradually
approaching an end, prominent Indians like Muhammad Al Jinnah, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Sir
S. Subramania Iyer and Annie Besant decided to organise a national alliance of leagues across India.
It was specifically to demand Home Rule or self-government within the British Empire for India.
Statement 2: In 1920, the All India Home Rule League elected Mahatma Gandhi as its president.
Within a year, the body would merge into the Indian National Congress to form a united Indian
political front.
Statement 3: It was run separately from both parthes. Some members of both INC and AIML joined
the Home Rule movement.

Q.59) Consider the following events occurring around the setting up of Home Rule Movement in
India.
1. By early 1915, Annie Besant had launched a campaign to demand self government for India after
the war on the lines of white colonies.
2. Tilak and Annie Besant set up two different Home Rule leagues after separating from a common
Home Rule movement.
3. In 1915 it was decided that the Extremists be admitted to the Congress.
4. Leaders such as Motilal Nehru and Jawaharlal Nehru completely boycotted the movement.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
[A] 1 and 3 only
[B] 2 and 4 only
[C] 2,3 and4only
[D] 1, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Statement 2: Tilak and Annie Besant set up their separate leagues to avoid any friction.
Tilak‘s League was set up in April 1916 and was restricted to Maharashtra (excluding Bombay city),
Karnataka, Central Provinces and Berar. It had six branches and the demands included swarajya,
formation of linguistic states and education in the vernacular languages. Besant's League was set up in
September 1916 in Madras and covered the rest of India (including Bombay city). It had 200
branches, was loosely organized as compared to Tilak‘s League and had George Arundale as the
organising secretary. Besides Arimdale, the main work was done by B.W. Wadia and C.P:
Ramaswamy Aiyar.
Statement 4: The Home Rule agitation was later joined by Motilal Nehru, Jawaharlal Nehru,
Bhulabhai Desai, Chittaranjan Das, Madan Mohan Malaviya, Mohammad Ali jinnah, Tej Bahadur
Sapru and Lala Lajpat Rai. Some of these leaders became heads of local branches. Many of the
Moderate Congressmen who were disillusioned with, Congress inactivity, and some members of
Gokhale's Servants of India Society also joined the agitation. However, Anglo-Indians, most of the
Muslims and non-Brahmins from South did not join as they felt 1lome Rule would mean rule of the
Hindu majority, mainly the high caste.
Statement 1 and Statement 3: By early 1915, Annie Besant had launched a campaign to demand self-
government for India after the war on the lines or white colonies. she campaigned through her
newspapers, New India and Commonweal, and through public meetings and conferences. At the
annual session of the Congress in 1915 the efforts of Tilak and Besant met with some success. It was
decided that the Extremists be admitted to the Congress.

Q.60) The Home Rule league of Tilak aimed at

[A] A reform of the British administration
[B] Overthrowing the British administration.
[C] Organising freedom struggle in only the western regions of the country
[D] Getting political power and entering the councils to break the British political structure from
within

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Objectives of the Home Rule League movement were to • Establish self-government. •
Build up an agitation for home rule by promoting political education and discussion. • Build the
confidence of the Indians against the suppression of the British government and to create an
alternative movement to break the existing state of stagnation and the inertia. • Revive the political
activity on their own while maintaining the principles of congress. • Demand for greater political
representation from the British government
Q.61) The Lucknow Pact, 1916, between Congress and Muslim League brought them together,
happened at a time when the Muslim League was gradually turning anti-imperialist. What
could have been the possible factors behind such an attitude of the Muslim League?
1. Britain's refusal to help Turkey in its wars in the Balkans (1912—13) and with Italy (during 1911)
had infuriated the Muslims. 2. Annulment of the partition of Bengal in 1911 was not well received by
all sections of the Muslims leaders.
Which of the above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A significant development to take place at Lucknow was the coming together of the
Muslim League and the Congress and the presentation of common demands by them to the
Government. This happened at a time when the Muslim League, now dominated by the younger
militant nationalists, was coming closer to the Congress objectives and turn increasingly anti-
imperialist. There were many reasons for this shift in the Leagues position:
(i) Britain‘s refusal to help Turkey (ruled by the Khalifa who claimed religion-politic leadership of all
Muslims) in its wars in the Balkans (1912—1913) and With Italy (during 1911) had infuriated the
Muslins.
(ii) Announcement of cancelation partition of Bengal in 1911 had annoyed those sections of Muslims
who had supported the partition.
(iii) The refusal of the British Government in India to set up a university at Aligarh with powers to
affiliate colleges all over India also alienated some Muslims.
(iv)The younger League members were turning to bolder nationalist politics and were trying to
outgrow the limited political outlook of the Aligarh school. The Calcutta session of the Muslim
League (1912) had committed the League to ‗working with other groups for a system of self-
government suited to India, provided it did not come in conflict with its basic objective of protection
of interests of the Indian Muslims‘. Thus, the goal of self-government similar to that of the Congress
brought both sides closer.
(v) Younger Muslims were infuriated by the government repression during the War. Maulana Azad‘s
Al Hilal and Mohammad Ali's Comrade faced suppression while the Al brothers, Maulana Azad and
Hasrat Mohani faced internment. This generated anti-imperialist sentiments among the ‗Young
Party'.

Q.62) The famous Lucknow Pact between the Indian National Compress and Muslim League
consisted of which of the following important provisions?
1. Separate electorates for the Muslims.
2. Reservations of seats for the minorithes in the legislature.
3. It demanded selfgoVemmen1t from the British after the war.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] All or the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Lucknow session in 1916 ended with the Lucknow Pact. This pact recognised the
Muslim League and also accepted a separate electorate.
• The pact also accepted the demand for reservation of seats for the minorithes in the legislature.
• Both will put forward the joint demands before the government, including that of self-government.
• With this pact, the communal electorate was recognised and the start of communal polithes.
Q.63) The following places were associated with the imprisonment or Mahatma Gandhi.
Arrange them chronologically in order of their appearance/association with the life of Mahatma
Gandhi.
1. Yervada
2.Sabarmati
3. Johannesburg
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
[A] 1, 2 and 3
[B] 3, 1 and 2
[C] 3,2 and 1
[D] 2, 3 and 1

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Statement 3: His first few imprisonments were in:
From 10-1-1908 to 31-1-1908, Johannesburg
From 1-11-1908 to 30-11-1908, Johannesburg and Volksrust
Statements 1 and 2: In India, the first three imprisonments were in:
From 9-4- 1919 to 11-4-1919. Railway carriage
From 10-3-1922 to 20-3-1922, Sabarmati
From 2 1-3-1922 to 11-1-1924, Yeravda
Then, he was imprisomed in Yeravda and Sabarmati several times, with the last imprisonment in Aga
Khan Palace, Delhi.

Q.64) Consider the following statements:

1. During the British rule, indentured labourers were hired under contracts which promised return
travel to India after they had worked five years on their employer's plantation.
2. A person became an indentured servant by borrowing money and then voluntarily agreeing to work
off the debt during a specified term.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In the 19th century, hundreds of thousands of Indian and Chinese labourers went to
work on plantations, in mines and in road and railway construction projects around the world. In
India, indentured labourers were hired under contracts which promised return travel to India after they
had worked five years on their employer‘s, plantation.
• Most Indian indentured workers came from the present-day regions of eastern Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Central India and the dry districts of Tamil Nadu. In the middle 9 century, these regions experienced
many changes——cottage industries declined, land rents rose and lands were cleared for mines and
plantations. All this affected the lives of the poor: they failed to pay their rents, became deeply
indebted and were forced to migrate in search of work.

Q.65) which of the following initiatives was/were undertaken by Gandhiji during his stay in
South Africa?
1. Campaign against restriction on Indian migration.
2. Campaign against poll tax and invalidation of Indian marriages.
3. Setting up Natal Indian Congress.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Gandhi formed the Natal Indian Congress in 1894. This organisation led non-violent
protests against the oppressive treatment of the white people towards the native Africans and Indians.
Started newspaper: Indian Opinion .
Found Passive Resistance Association. Found Tolstoy farm with the help of Kallenbach.
During the outheeak of the Boer War in 1899, Gandhi gathered around 1,100 Indians and organised
the Indian Ambulance Corps for the British but the ethnic discrimination and torture continued on
Indians.

Q.66) In 1904, Mahatma Gandhi set up a farm at Phoenix near Durban where he and his
friends could live in austerity and hard work, which of the following books had an immediate
influence on Mahatma Gandhi to set up this farm?
[A] war and Peace by Leo Tolstoy
[B] Walden by Henry David Thoreau
[C] Unto The Last by John Ruskin
[D] The Bible

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi felt an irresistible attraction to a life of simplicity, manual labour and
austerity. In 1904—after reading John Ruskin's ‗Unto The Last‘, a critique of capitalism- he set up a
farm at Phoenix near Durban where he and his friends could live by the sweat of their brow. Six years
later, another colony grew up under Mahatma Gandhi‘s fostering care near Johannesburg; it was
named Tolstoy Farm for the Russian writer and moralist, whom Mahatma Gandhi admired and
corresponded with. Those two setthements were the precursors of the more famous ashrams (religious
retreats) in India, at Sabarmati near Ahmedabad (Ahmadabad) and at Sevagram near Wardha.

Q.67) Which of the following organizations,‘ newspapers is/are associated with Mahatma
Gandhi‘s struggle in South Africa?
1. Indian Natal Organization
2.Indian Mirror
3.Indian Opinion
4. Passive Resistance Organization
Select the correct answer using the code given below
[A] 1, 3 and 4 only
[B] 2, 3 and 4 only
[C] 1,2,3 and 4
[D] 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Indian Mirror was an English paper founded by Devendranath Tagore, at Calcutta in
1862.

Q.68) What importance does the place Pietermaritzburg, South Africa, hold in Gandhiji's life?
[A] It was from here that he launched his first Satyagraha.
[B] This was the first place where he was imprisomed for protesting against the government.
[C] He was thrown off the train's first class compartment at this station which led him to work against
racial discrimination.
[D] His first major nationalist writing was based on events held in this place, that later find a mention
in his book, ‗Truth is God‘

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: External Affairs Minister recently undertook a train journey from Pentrich to
Pietermaritzburg reminding ourselves of Gandhi‘s heritage.
Learning: It is a railway station in South Africa where a young Mahatma Gandhi was thrown out of a
‗Whites-only‘ compartment 125 years ago. On June 7, 1893, Gandhi, then a young lawyer, was
thrown off the train's first class compartment at Pietermaritzburg station after he refused to give up his
seat as ordered by racially prejudiced officials.
The incident led him to develop his Satyagraha principles of peaceful resistance and mobilize people
in South Africa and in India against the discriminatory rules of the British.

Q.69) By the time Mahatma Gandhi arrived in India

1. He had already forged a technique or non-violent satyagraha in South Africa.
2. The Indian National Congress was already established in India.
3. The first Swadeshi movement had already been waged.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: As the historian Chandran Devanesan remarked, South Africa was 'the making of the
Mahatma'. It was in South Africa that Mahatma Gandhi first forged the distinctive techniques of non-
violent protest known as Satyagraha, first promoted harmony between religions and first alerted
upper-caste Indians to their discriminatory treatment of low castes and women.
• The India that Mahatma Gandhi came back to in 1915 was rather different from the one that he had
left in 1893. Although still a colony of the British, it was far more active politically.
• The Indian National Congress now had branches in most major cithes and towns. Through the
Swadeshi movement of 1905-1907, it had greatly broadened its appeal among the middle classes.
That movement had thrown up some towering leaders—among them Bal Gangadhar Tilak of
Maharashtra, Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal and Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab

Q.70) with reference to events that took place after Mahatma Gandhi returned from South
Africa, consider the following statements:
1. On Tilak's advice, Mahatma Gandhi spent a year travelling around British India getting to know the
land and its people.
2. His first major public appearance was at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University in February
1916.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] None of the above
[C] Both 1 and2
[D] 2 only

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: On Gokhale's advice, Mahatma Gandhi spent a year travelling around British India
getting to know the land and its peoples.
• His first major public appearance was at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University in February
1916. Among the invitees to this event were the princes and philanthropists whose donations had
contributed to the founding of the University. Also present were important leaders of the Congress
such as Annie Besant.
Compared to these dignitaries, Mahatma Gandhi was relatively unknown. He had been invited on
account of his work in South Africa rather than his status within India. When his turn came to speak,
Mahatma Gandhi charged the Indian elite with a lack of concern for the labouring poor.
The opening of the Banaras Hindu University, he said, was certainly a most gorgeous show. But he
worried about the contrast between the richly bedecked noblemen present and millions of the poor
Indians who were absent.
 Mahatma Gandhi told the privileged invitees that there is no salvation for India unless you strip
yourself of this jewellery and hold it in trust for your countrymen in India. There can be no spirit or
self- government about us, he went on, if we take away or allow others to take away from the peasants
almost the whole of the results of their labour. Our salvation can only come through the farmer.
Neither the lawyers nor the doctors nor the rich landlords are going to secure it.
The opening of the Banaras Hindu University was an occasion for celebration marking as it did the
opening or a nationalist university, sustained by Indian money and Indian initiative. But rather than
adopt a tone of self-congratulation. Mahatma Gandhi chose instead to remind those present of the
peasants and workers who constituted a majority of the Indian population, yet were unrepresented in
the audience. 

Q.71) The ‗tinkathia system‘ associated with the Champaran movement was actually
[A] A solution devised by Mahatma Gandhi to end the exploitation of peasants by European planters.
[B] A system that made peasants cultivate indigo on part of their land at unremunerative prices.
[C] A division of land that was held by European planters in the name of the peasants.
[D] A three-pronged separation of peasants on the basis of caste, gender and religion.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: There had been sporadic resistance in Champaran since the 1860s to the tinkathia
system by which European planters holding thikadari leases from the big zamindars made peasants
cultivate indigo on part of their land at unremunerative prices.
As indigo declined from about 1900 in face of competition from synthetic dyes, the planters tried to
pass the burden on the peasants by charging sharahbeshi (rent enhancement) or tawan (lump sum
compensation) in return for releasing them from the obligation to grow indigo, widespread resistance
developed in the Motihari-l3ettiah region between 1905 and 1908 and even after it continued.
It was as a part of this on-going confrontation that Raj Kumar Shukla, a prosperous peasant cum petty
moneylender, contacted Mahatma Gandhi at the Lucknow Congress of 1916.
• This became the historic Champaran movement.

Q.72) Ahmadabad Mill Strike 1918 led by Mahatma Gandhi was based on the issue of
[A] Plague bonus of 1he previous year to workers.
[B] Inhuman treatment of mill workers by the management.
[C] Objection of management on participation of workers in the freedom struggle.
[D] Large-scale layoffs of mill workers

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: In 1918, there was a situation of conflict between the Gujarat mill owners and workers
on the question of Plague Bonus of 1917.
The mill owners wanted to withdraw the bonus while the workers demanded a 50% wage hike. The
mill owners were willing to give only a 20% wage hike.
Later in March, under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, there was a strike in the cotton mills. In this
strike, Gandhi used the weapon of hunger strike. It was carried out in a non-violent disciplined way.
The result was that the strike was successful and the workers got a 35% wage increase.

Q.73) The first ashram established by Mahatma Gandhi in India was

[A] Kochrab Ashram, near Ahmedabad
[B] Sabarmati Ashram
[C] Khadi Pratishthan and Ashram at Sodepur, Kolkata
[D] Bardoli Taluka Ashram

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kochrab was the first ashram established by Mahatma Gandhi in India in 1915. It was a
pioneering centre for Students of Gandhian ideas to practice satyagraha, self-sufficiency, Swadeshi,
work for the upliftment of the poor, women and untouchables and public education and sanitation.
Sabarmati Ashram was the residence of Gandhi for over 12 years r191 7— 1930) and a laboratory for
his social experiments (e.g. agriculture and literacy promotion).
It was also from here that in 1930. Gandhi started his Dandi March. This was not his first ashram
though.

Q.74) Consider the following statements about the Kheda Satyagraha of 1918:
1. It was the first Satyagraha movement launched in India by Mahatma Gandhi.
2. The peasants of Kheda were unable to pay the high taxes of the British due to crop failure and
plague epidemic which inspired the Satyagraha.
3. During this time, Sardar Panel organised a major tax revolt within the Kheda community.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 2 only

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Statement 1: It was the second Satyagraha movement alter the Champaran Satyagraha,
Mahatma Gandhi organised this movement to support the peasants or Kheda district.
The peasants or Kheda were not able to pay the high taxes of the British due to crop failure and
plague epidemic.
• In Gujarat, Mahatma Gandhi was the spiritual head of the struggle. His chief lieutenant Sardar
vallabhbhai Patel and a close coterie of devoted Gandhians toured the countryside, organised the
villagers and gave them political leadership and direction.
The tax withheld, the government's collectors and inspectors sent in thugs to seize property and
catthe, while the police forfeited the lands and all agrarian property. The farmers did not resist arrest
nor retaliate to the force employed with violence.
The government finally sought to foster an honourable agreement for both parthes. The tax for the
year in question and the next would be suspended and the increase in rate reduced, while all
confiscated property would be returned

Q.75) The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crime Act (1919) was popularly known as the:
[A] Rowlatt Act
[B] Pitt‘s India Act
[C] Indian Arms Act
[D] Ilbert Bill

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, popularly known as the
Rowlatt Act, was a legislative council act passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in Delhi on 18
March 1919.

Q.76) Which of the following is NOT a part of the Meghalaya Plateau?

[A] Jaintia Hills
[B] Khasi Hills
[C] Garo Hills
[D] Palamu Hills

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Meghalaya plateau's western, northern, and southern escarpments are called the Garo,
Khasi, and Jaintia hills, respectively.Palamu hills are in Jharkhand.
Q.77) In which of the following Himalyan ranges is the Banihal Pass situated?
[A] Great Himalayas
[B] Pir Panjal
[C] Ladakh
[D] Zaskar

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Banihal Pass is a mountain pass across the Pir Panjal Range at a maximum elevation of
2,832 m. It connects the Kashmir Valley in the union territory of Jammu and

Q.78) Where is the Duncan Pass located?

[A] Goa
[B] Telangana
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] The Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Duncan Pass is located between the south and little Andaman. It is a strait in the Indian
Ocean. It is about 48 km wide, it separates Rutland Island (part of Great Andaman) to the north and
Little Andaman to the south.

Q.79) The Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian states. Which of the following is NOT one of
them?
[A] Rajasthan
[B] Assam
[C] West Bengal
[D] Chhattisgarh

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian States namely, Gujarat, Rajasthan,
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.

Q.80) Bhutan is surrounded by which of the following Indian States?

[A] Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, West Bengal, Sikkim
[B] Assam, Mizoram, West Bengal, Bihar
[C] Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, West Bengal, Bihar
[D] Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Bihar, Meghalaya

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Bhutan is surrounded by Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, West Bengal and Sikkim. Bhutan
is located on the southern slopes of the eastern Himalayas, landlocked between the Tibet autonomous
region to the north and the Indian states of Sikkim, West Bengal, Assam, and Arunachal Pradesh to
the west and south.

Q.81) In the context of physical characteristics of India, What is Kayal ?

[A] Alluvial floodplains in the north-east
[B] Lake formed by the tectonic activities
[C] Backwaters
[D] thick deposition of glacial clay

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A backwater is a part of a river which has a little or no current. It can refer to a branch
of a main river, which lies alongside it and then rejoins it, or to a body of water in a main river,
backed up by the tide or by an obstruction such as a dam.
Q.82) Susu Dolphin is found in the waters of which river?
[A] Jhelum
[B] Indus
[C] Chenab
[D] Ganga

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The south Asian river dolphin is an endangered freshwater or river dolphin found in the
region of the Indian subcontinent, which is split into two subspecies, the Ganges river dolphin and the
Indus river dolphin. However, in India, Susu dolphins are found in the Ganga river.

Q.83) Trimbkeshwar is the source of which of the following rivers ?

[A] Godavari
[B] Kaveri
[C] Krishna
[D] Mahanadi

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Trimbakeshwar town is an ancient Hindu Pilgrim centre located at the source of the
Godavari River, the longest river in peninsular India, that originates from Brahmagiri mountains and
meets the sea near Rajahmundry.

Q.84) Which of the following river project built across the Mahanadi River?
[A] Tungabhadra Dam
[B] Damodat Valley Project
[C] Hirakud Dam
[D] Chamabal Project

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River, from Sambalpur in the state of Odisha
in India. Hence, C is the correct option.

Q.85) Periyar Wild Life Sanctuary is located in ________ State.

[A] Andhra Pradesh
[B] Tamil Nadu
[C] Kerala
[D] Karnataka

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Periyar Wild Life Sanctuary is located in Kerala State. Periyar National Park and
wildlife sanctuary is located in the Indian state of Kerala. The national park covers an area of 925 sq
kilometers with a core zone of around 325 sq kilometers.

Q.86) Wild asses are found in

[A] Parkal Warangal (Andhra Pradesh)
[B] Rann of Kutch Gujarat
[C] Manas Barpeta (Assam)
[D] Chandraprabha Varanasi

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Wild asses are found in Rann of Kutch, Gujarat. Located in an area called Little Run of
Kutch, the Wild Ass Sanctuary in Kutch is the only home to wild ass in India. The sanctuary was set
up in 1973 with a purpose to protect the endangered Indian wild ass
Q.87) The first marine sanctuary in India, having within its bounds coral reefs, mollusca, dolphins,
tortoises and various kinds of sea birds, has been established in
[A] Sundarbans
[B] Chilka Lake
[C] Gulf of Kachchh
[D] Lakshadweep

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The first marine sanctuary in India, having within its bounds coral reefs, mollusca,
dolphins, tortoises and various kinds of sea birds, has been established in Chilka Lake

Q.88) Which of the following river originates out of India?

[A] Brahmaputra
[B] Beas
[C] Ravi
[D] Jhelum

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Brahamputra river originates from chenayundung glacier near lake Mansarovar in
Tibet. It is know by different names in different regions.
Region - Local Name
Tibet - Tsangpo
Chinese - Yarlung Zangbo Jiang
Bangladesh - Jamuna

Q.89) Which of the following rivers makes an estuary?

[A] Krishna
[B] Mahanadi
[C] Kosi
[D] Narmada

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Narmada river flows through rift valley and hence is not able to pick up much
sediments and flows westward into the Arabian sea. An estuary is a place where river water meets the
saline water of sea.

Q.90) For short-term climatic predictions, which one of the following events, detected in the last
decade, is associated with occasional weak monsoon rains in the Indian subcontinent?
[A] La Nina
[B] Movement of jet streams
[C] El Nino and southern oscillations
[D] Green-house effect on global level

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: For short-term climatic predictions, El Nino and southern oscillations, detected in the
last decade, is associated with occasional weak monsoon rains in the Indian subcontinent. El Nino and
the Southern Oscillation, also known as ENSO is a periodic fluctuation in sea surface temperature (El
Nino) and the air pressure of the overlying atmosphere (Southern Oscillation) across the equatorial
Pacific Ocean.

Q.91) Which are the biodiversity hotspots of

India?
 (A) Western Ghats
(B) North East India
(C) Sunderland
[A] A , B and C
[B] A and B
[C] Only B
[D] Only A

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Biodiversity is referred to as the variation of plant and animal species in a particular
habitat. Species evenness and species richness form the major components of biodiversity.
Biodiversity hotspots are the regions known for their high species richness and endemism.
According to Conservation International, a region must fulfil following two criteria to qualify as a
hotspot:
(a) The region should have at least 1500 species of vascular plants, i.e., it should have a high
degree of endemism.
(b) It must contain 30% (or less) of its original habitat, i.e., it must be
threatened. There are 4 biodiversity hotspots in India:
a) The Himalayas
b) Indo-Burma region
c) The Western Ghats
d) Sundaland

Q.92) A policy which involves fixing the maximum size of land which could be owned by an
individual is called .
[A] Land mapping
[B] Land jamming
[C] Land ceiling
[D] Land capping

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The policy which involves fixing the maximum size of land which could be owned by
an individual is called Land Ceiling. Land ceiling can be defined as the process of fixing the
maximum limit of land holdings that an individual can own. The Urban Land Ceiling was a Law in
India that was passed in 1976.

Q.93) Consider the following statements:

1. Gondwana coal is laminated, bituminous coal.,
2. Gondwana coal is completely free from moisture, sulphur, and phosphorus.,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Gondwana coal is a laminated, bituminous coal. The Gondwana coal is a laminated
bituminous coal within which dull and bright layers alternate. This coal is almost free from moisture
but it contains variable quantities of sulphur and phosphorous. In general, Gondwana coal is good
steam or gas coal. This is also known as metallurgical coal.
Q.94) India is divided into how many pin code zones?
[A] Six
[B] Seven
[C] nine
[D] Ten

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: There are 9 PIN regions in the country. The first 8 are geographical regions and the
digit 9 is reserved for the Army Postal Service.

Q.95) As per 2011 Census, the State in India with the highest urban population ?
[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Punjab
[D] Uttar Pradesh

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: As per 2011 Census Maharashtra had the highest urban population.

Q.96) The highest railway station of the world is situated of Ghoom near Darjeeling at an altitude of
[A] 2225 mt.
[B] 3000 mt.
[C] 8848 mt.
[D] 2000 mt.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The highest railway station of the world is situated of Ghoom near Darjeeling at an
altitude of 2225 mt.

Q.97) The Farakka Project is mainly aimed towards

[A] The irrigation of more lands in West Bengal
[B] Preserving the port of Kolkata
[C] Production of electricity
[D] Checking the floods.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Farakka Project is mainly aimed towards Preserving the port of Kolkata.

Q.98) Which city of West Bengal is called gateway city of NE India?

[A] Jalpaiguri
[B] Coochbehar
[C] Siliguri
[D] Alipurdura

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Siliguri is situated at the base of the Himalaya mountains in the plains of Darjeeling
District by the side of River Mahananda. It is the 2nd largest city in West Bengal and known as the
Gateway of North-Eastern India.

Q.99) The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) is

[A] a cetral government organization of India
[B] a state government organization of India
[C] a government organization represented by both the Central (India) and the state governments of
West Bengal and jharkhand
[D] an organization of the state government of West Bengal and Jharkhand.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) is a government organization represented by
both the Central (India) and the state governments of West Bengal and jharkhand.

Q.100) Jalpaiguri town is located in the bank of

[A] Tista and Karala river
[B] Tista and Jaldhaka river
[C] Jaldhaka and Raidhak river
[D] Tista and Raidhak river

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Jalpaiguri town is located in the bank of Tista and Karala river

Q.101) Nucleus contains

[A] Chromosomes
[B] DNA
[C] Nucleoplasm
[D] All of these

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Nucleus has double layered covering called nuclear membrane, which has pores to
transfer the materials from inside the nucleus to outside. It contains chromosomes which in turn are
composed of DNA and protein. DNA is hereditary factor that transfer information from one
generation to next, it also contains the information necessary for constructing and organising cells.

Q.102) The red colour of human blood is due to

[A] myoglobin
[B] haemoglobin
[C] immunoglobulin
[D] heptoglobin

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Human blood is red because hemoglobin, which is carried in the blood and
functions to transport oxygen, is iron-rich and red in color. Octopuses and horseshoe crabs have
blue blood. This is because the protein transporting oxygen in their blood, hemocyanin, is actually
blue.

Q.103) _____ is the smallest gland in human body.

[A] Parotid gland
[B] Apocrine sweat gland
[C] Pineal gland
[D] Ebner‘s gland

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Pineal gland.
 Pineal gland is the smallest gland in the human body with a length of about 5-8 mm.
 It is located in the epithalamus, near the center of the brain.
 The gland produces melatonin and serotonin and is, therefore, responsible for modulating
sleep patterns.
Q.104) Blood is a
[A] cell
[B] tissue
[C] organ
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Blood is considered as a tissue because it is an assemblage of different cells that

Q.105) Iodine solution is used to test the presence of

[A] sugar
[B] proteins
[C] starch
[D] fats

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Iodine test is a test to detect the presence of starch, where the sample changes into
blue-black colour after addition of a few drops of potassium iodide solution in the sample. it gets
attached to the helical rings of starch.

Q.106) Which of the following vitamins is called a water-soluble vitamin?

[A] vitamin A
[B] vitamin D
[C] vitamin C
[D] vitamin K

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 12Water-Soluble Vitamins. The water-soluble vitamins include ascorbic acid (vitamin
C), thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, vitamin B6 (pyridoxine, pyridoxal, and pyridoxamine), folacin, vitamin
B12, biotin, and pantothenic acid.

Q.107) In flowering plant, the unisexual male flower is

[A] staminate
[B] pistillate
[C] bisexual
[D] monoecious

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In several fungi and plants, terms such as homothallic and monoecious are used to
denote the bisexual condition and heterothallic and dioecious are the terms used to describe unisexual
condition. In flowering plants, the unisexual male flower is staminate, i.e., bearing stamens, while the
female is pistillate or bearing pistils. In some flowering plants, both male and female flowers may be
present on the same individual (monoecious) or on separate individuals (dioecious).

Q.108) Change in the base sequence within a gene is called

[A] Mutation
[B] Cloning
[C] Fission
[D] Breeding

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is mutation. Key Points. Mutation means a change in the DNA
base pairs sequenced. It is done due to various environmental factors like UV light or if any mistakes
are encountered during DNA replication. A DNA sequence is unique in each organism.
Q.109) In which part of the body urine is stored until no: released outside the body?
[A] Kidney
[B] Ureter
[C] urinary bladder
[D] Urethra

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The bladder is a hollow muscular organ shaped like a balloon. It sits in the pelvis and is
held in place by ligaments attached to other organs and the pelvic bones. The bladder stores urine
until enough of it accumulates for removal from the body.

Q.110) A... of a physical quantity are the powers (or exponents) to Which the units of base
quantities are raised to represent a derived unit of that quantity.
[A] unit
[B] measurement
[C] dimension
[D] error

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The dimension of a physical quantity is defined as the powers to which the
fundamental quantities are raised in order to represent that quantity. The seven
fundamental quantities are enclosed in square brackets [ ] to represent its dimensions.

Q.111) When pressure is increased, then melting point of ice

[A] increases
[B] does not change
[C] decreases
[D] depends on the impurities in the ice

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The melting point of ice decreases when pressure increases because when pressure is
increased volume is decreased and volume of water is less than ice.

Q.112) If an object undergoes a uniform circular motion, then its NDA 2013
[A] acceleration remains uniform
[B] velocity changes
[C] speed changes
[D] velocity remains uniform

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: If an object is moving in a circular motion with a constant speed, then it is accelerating,
since the direction of its velocity changes

Q.113) The energy that can harness heat stored below the Earth's surface or the oldest type of
energy known to man is known as
[A] thermal energy
[B] nuclear energy
[C] tidal energy
[D] geothermal energy

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Geothermal energy is the thermal energy generated and stored in the Earth.
Q.114) The period of revolution of a geostationary satellite is
[A] 365 days
[B] 30 days
[C] 24 hours
[D] changing continuously

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Geostationary orbit, a circular orbit 35,785 km (22,236 miles) above Earth's Equator in
which a satellite's orbital period is equal to Earth's rotation period of 23 hours and 56 minutes. A
spacecraft in this orbit appears to an observer on Earth to be stationary in the sky.

Q.115) Light travels slower in glass than in air, because

[A] refractive index of air is less than that of glass
[B] refractive index of air is greater than that of glass
[C] density of glass is greater than that of air
[D] density of glass is less than that of air

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: As the refractive index of the medium increases, the speed of light in the medium
decreases. The refractive index of glass is higher than air, so the speed of light will be slower in
glass and faster in air.

Q.116) Audible range for adult human beings is:

[A] Less than 20 Hz
[B] 20 to 20,000 Hz
[C] 21,000 to 50,000 Hz
[D] 100 to 120 kHz

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is 20 to 20,000 Hz.
 Humans can detect sounds in a frequency range from about 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
 The number of sound vibrations emitted per second is known as the frequency which is
measured in hertz (Hz). The lower (or higher) the frequency, the lower (or higher) the pitch of
the sound.

Q.117) A hollow conductor is charged having all the points inside the conductor has same
potential. How will the charge affect the conductor?
[A] All the charges will accumulate on the outer surface of the conductor
[B] All the charges will enter the hollow conductor
[C] Half of the charges will accumulation the surface and half will enter inside the hollow sphere
[D] Can‘t say

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The simplest way to see this is that all parts on the outside surface of the conductor
will remain at the same potential, irrespective of the location of the charge inside the hollow part.

Q.118) Which one of the following pairs of rays is electromagnetic in nature?

[A] Beta rays and gamma rays
[B] Cathode rays and x-rays
[C] Alpha rays and beta rays
[D] X-rays and gamma rays

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: X-rays and gamma rays pairs of rays is electromagnetic in nature.
Electromagnetic (EM) radiation is a form of energy that is all around us and takes many forms, such as radio
waves, microwaves, X-rays and gamma rays. Sunlight is also a form of EM energy, but visible light is only a
small portion of the EM spectrum, which contains a broad range of electromagnetic wavelengths.
When you get yourself a radiography done, that machine doctors use emits gamma rays (also known as x-rays).
Any radioactive element (such as radium, uranium and thorium) will emit gamma rays until their energy runs
out. Gamma rays are also used as a cancer cure, since they can kill living cells.

Q.119) A base is a substance which

[A] is bitter in taste
[B] gives OW ions in aqueous solution
[C] can donate electron
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Svante Arrhenius proposed in 1884 that a base is a substance which dissociates in
aqueous solution to form hydroxide ions OH−. These ions can react with hydrogen ions (H+ according
to Arrhenius) from the dissociation of acids to form water in an acid-base reaction.

Q.120) What happens when dilute sulphuric acid is poured on silver plate?
[A] silver sulphate is formed
[B] So2 gas is evolved
[C] No reaction takes place
[D] Hydrogen gas is evolved

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Those metals which are more reactive than hydrogen, that is, those metals which lose
electrons more easily than hydrogen, displace hydrogen from dilute acids to produce hydrogen gas.
The metals like copper and silver which are less reactive than hydrogen, do not displace hydrogen
from dilute acids. This is because they do not provide electrons required for the reduction of hydrogen
ions present in acids.

Q.121) The isomerism exhibited by n-propyl alcohol and iso-propyl alcohol is

[A] chain isomerism
[B] position isomerism
[C] functional isomerism
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: n-propyl alcohol; CH3−CH2−CH2−OH and isopropyl alcohol;
CH3−CH(CH3)−OH are position isomers as the basic carbon skeleton is same but position of -OH
group is different.

Q.122) In the covalent bond

[A] electrons are equally shared by the two atoms
[B] electrons of one atom are shared between two atoms
[C] hydrogen bond is formed
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Covalent bond, in chemistry, the interatomic linkage that results from the sharing of
an electron pair between two atoms. The binding arises from the electrostatic attraction of their nuclei
for the same electrons.
Q.123) Which one of the following is the most important characteristic of water to act as a good
solvent?
[A] Purity of water
[B] Ionising power of water
[C] Polar nature of water
[D] Dissolving power of water

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Because of its polarity and ability to form hydrogen bonds, water makes an
excellent solvent, meaning that it can dissolve many different kinds of molecules.

Q.124) with the increase in atomic number in a period.

[A] metallic character decreases
[B] non-metallic character decreases
[C] ionisation energy decreases
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Metallic character decreases on going across a period as the ionization energy value increases
along with electronegativity and electron affinity.

Q.125) A substance which oxidises itself and reduces other is known as

[A] an oxidising agent
[B] a reducing agent
[C] Both 'a and 'b‘
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A substance which oxidises itself and reduces other is known as a reducing agent

Q.126) Which constitutional amendment act added four regional languages namely Bodo,
Dogri, Maithali & Santhali in 8th Schedule of constitution?
[A] 42nd Amendment
[B] 96th Amendment
[C] 52nd Amendment
[D] 92nd Amendment

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act 2003, amended Eighth Schedule to
Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Santhali & Maithili languages. Raised total number of
languages listed in schedule to 22.

Q.127) Who is the Advocate General of the State responsible to?

[A] Governor
[B] Chief Minister
[C] Speaker of the Assembly
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Advocate general is a legal advisor to a state government. The Governor of each state
shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed judges in high court.
Q.128) Who of the following was the first Prime Minister to visit Siachen?
[A] Dr. Manmohan Singh
[B] Rajiv Gandhi
[C] Atal Bihari Vajpayee
[D] Lal Bahadur Shastri

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Visits. On 12 June 2005, Prime Minister Manmohan Singh became the first Indian
Prime Minister to visit the area, calling for a peaceful resolution of the problem.

Q.129) The institution 'Grama Sabha' correctly refers to

[A] All male of a village
[B] Whole population of a village
[C] Electorate for Panchayat
[D] Elected members of Panchayat

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Gram Sabha is grass root level democratic institution in each Village Panchayat.
Comprises persons registered in electoral roll relating to Panchayat Village, comprised within area of
said Village Panchayat.

Q.130) For how long, a joint sitting of both the houses of Parliament may be convened to consider a
bill which was passed by one house and pending in another house?
[A] 3 Months
[B] 6 Months
[C] 9 Months
[D] 12 Months

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: If an ordinary bill has been rejected by any house of the parliament and if more than
six months have elapsed, the President may summon a joint session for purpose of passing the bill.
The bill is passed by a simple majority of a joint sitting.

Q.131) The Supreme Court of India was set up by

[A] Constitution
[B] Law of Parliament
[C] Presidential Order
[D] Ordinance

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: AS originally enacted, the Constitution of India provided for a Supreme Court with a
Chief Justice and seven lower-ranking judges —leaving it to Indian Parliament to increase this
number. In early years, a full bench of Supreme Court sat together to hear cases presented before
them.

Q.132) Consider the following statements about Articles of Constitution

(1) As per the Article 12, State means only State government and not local government.
(2) As per the Article13, law includes only Parliamentary law.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Article 12—Definition of State includes Union and State government's legislatures,
local authorities, PSUs etc.
Article13— all laws that are inconsistent with fundamental rights shall be void. (Basis of judicial
review)
As per Article 13 Laws Include:
a. Laws of parliament, state legislature
b. Ordinances
c. Non legislative sources of law (Convention).
d. Delegated legislation
Hence both the statements are incorrect.

Q.133) Which one of the following is incorrect?

[A] Our Constitution does not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of his religion, in matters
of employment to public services or holding public offices
[B] Our Constitution does not prohibit the imparting of religious instruction in educational institutions
run by the Government
[C] The Constitution of India guarantees to all the citizens of India the right to profess, practice and
propagate a religion of err choice
[D] No person can be made to pay taxes for the promotion of any particular religion under our
Constitution

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Our Constitution does not prohibit the imparting of religious instruction in
educational institutions run by the Government

Q.134)
Which among the following
amendments added the Fundamental Duties as per recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh
Committee?
[A] 38th
[B] 40th
[C] 42nd
[D] 44th

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sardar Swaran Singh committee was constituted by Indira Gandhi soon after
emergency was imposed
in the country. The objective of this committee was to study the question of amending the constitutio
n in the light of past experiences and recommend the amendments. The 42nd amendment act which is
also called ―Mini Constitution‖ which amended many articles and even the Preamble was
a result of the recommendations of Sardar Swaran SinghT ecchnoolomgy &m
U | [email protected] 1| 0
fundamental duties were also added as per the recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh committee.

Q.135) Which among the following articles speaks about impeachment of the President of India?
[A] Article 60
[B] Article 61
[C] Article 62
[D] Article 63

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: As per Article 61, President of India
can be impeached on ground of violation of the Constitution. However what amounts to violatio
n of the Constitution has not been defined. The process of impeachment can begin in any of
Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. The charges for impeachment should be signed by 1/4 members of the
house in which the process begins and a notice of 14 days should be given to the President. The
impeachment bill has to be passed by majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of
the House {special majority}. One passed in that house, the bill reaches to another house, which shall
investigate the charges. President has right to appear and be represented in case of such investigations.
If other house also sustains those charges, then it would again need to pass the bill
by special majority and thus president stands removed from the office on which the bill is passed in
other house. Since it is a bill for removal of president himself, no presidential assent is needed here

Q.136) What is the maximum life of an ordinance promulgated by President of India?

[A] 6 months
[B] 7.5 months
[C] 8 months
[D] 10 months

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:Article 123 of the Indian constitution empowers the President to promulgate
ordinances. This mechanism has been devised to enable the executive to deal with
a situation that may suddenly and immediately arise when the Parliament is not in session (either on
e or both houses). As maximum gap between two session of a house can be 6 months therefore
maximum life of a ordinance can be 6 months and 6 weeks, which is roughly 7.5 months.

Q.137) The Promulgation of an ordinance by a President is done when ?

[A] President feels that ordinance should be promulgated (on discretion)
[B] When Supreme Court advises the President
[C] When Council of Ministers advises President
[D] When any house of the parliament passes a resolution

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Correct Answer: C [When Council of Ministers advises President]

Q.138) When vice president acts as the president , which among the following is/ are true?
[A] He/ She remains the chairman of the Rajya Sabha and performs the duties of the chairman of
Rajya Sabha
[B] He/ She ceases to be the chairman of Rajya Sabha
[C] Lok Sabha Speaker performs the duty of the chairman of the Rajya Sabha
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Correct Answer: B [He/ She ceases to be the chairman of Rajya Sabha]

Q.139) Which among the following is not a factor of production?

[A] Land
[B] Labour
[C] Capital
[D] Wages

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Wages are not included in the factors of production.

Q.140) Personal Disposable Income means?

[A] Personal Income-Direct Taxes
[B] Personal Income – Indirect Taxes + Fees+ Fines
[C] Personal Income- Indirect Taxes + Fees+ Fines+ Social Security Contribution by Employers
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Personal Income – Direct Taxes + Fee+ Fines+ Social Security Contribution by
employers. The amount of money that households have available for spending and saving after
income taxes have been accounted for Disposable Personal Income is often monitored as one of the
many key Economic Indicators used to gauge the overall State of the Economy. Disposable Income is
total personal income minus personal current taxes.
Disposable Personal Income is the amount of money that households have avail it for spending and
saving after income taxes have been counted for.
P.I- Direct Taxes + Fees+ Fines+ Social Society Contribution by Employers.

Q.141) Which of the following class will not be negatively affected by the higher inflation?
[A] The consumer class
[B] The debtor class
[C] Pensioner class
[D] Business class

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Business class will be richer by receiving the higher prices of the commodities.

Q.142) Which of the following is a reason for inflation?

[A] Deficit financing
[B] Growth in per capita income
[C] Structural deficiencies
[D] All the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Inflation refers to rise in the general price level in the economy. Various demand
and supply side factors cause inflation.

Q.143) Consider the following statements and identify the right ones.
i. The lead bank scheme owes its origin to Nariman Committee
ii. Under this scheme, SBI and its subsidiaries only were given the responsibility of
development of districts
[A] i only
[B] ii only
[C] both
[D] none

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Under this scheme, SBI and its subsidiaries, 14 nationalised banks as well as 3
private banks were given the responsibility of development of districts.

Q.144) Which among the following Five Year Plans of the Indian Economy Adopted the Indicative
Planning Model?
[A] Fourth Five Year Plan
[B] Fifth Five Year Plan
[C] Eighth Five Year Plan
[D] Tenth Five Year Plan

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: During the Eighth Five Year Plan the Indian Economy adopted the Indicative Planning
Model. Indicative Planning is a form of Economic Planning implemented by a State in an effort to
solve the problem of imperfect information in market and Mixed Economy in order to increase
economic performance. When utilizing indicative planning the state employs influence, subsidies,
grants and taxes.
Q.145) What is the primary deficit in the context of Indian budget?
[A] It is the difference between the government‘s total expenditure and its total receipts
excluding borrowing
[B] It is the excess of government‘s revenue expenditure over revenue receipts
[C] It is the difference between the fiscal deficit of the current year and interest payments on
the previous borrowings
[D] It is the difference between Revenue Deficit and Grants for Creation of Capital Assets

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Primary deficit = fiscal deficit - interest payments. Standard formula

Q.146) Consider the following statements about Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
1. It can be increased to curb deflation or low inflation.
2. RBI pays interest on CRR to the scheduled banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: CRR is decreased to curb deflation. Decreasing CRR will increase money supply
and push the economy towards inflationary tendency. No interest is paid on CRR

Q.147) Fully automated screen-based trading system NSE is known as

[A] BOLT
[B] NEAT
[C] ALBM
[D] BLISS

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The NSE trading system called 'National Exchange for Automated Trading' (NEAT) is
a fully automated screen-based trading system, which adopts the principle of an order driven market.

Q.148) —— is the venture capital assistance at the stage where the project started to fetch profit but
not reached in its full efficiency.
[A] Startup Capital
[B] Bridge Capital
[C] Mezzanine Capital
[D] Seed Capital

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mezzanine capital is the venture capital assistance at the stage where the project started
to fetch profit but not reached in its full efficiency.

Q.149) What is the contribution of livestock in agricultural sector?

[A] 5%
[B] 15%
[C] 25%
[D] 10%

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Livestock contributes 25 percent of gross value added in the Agriculture Sector and
provides self employment to about 21 million people. Growth of Livestock output averaged 4.8
percent per annum during the Eleventh Plan recovering from an average of 3.6 percent in the Ninth
and the Tenth Plan.

Q.150) Which of the following is not the function of the World Bank?
[A] To provide long term loan to the member countries
[B] To provide loan to private investors belonging to member countries on its own guarantee
[C] To ensure exchange rate stability
[D] To provides loan mainly for productive activities

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The World Bank is playing the main role in providing loans for the development works
to the member countries. It provides long term loans for 5 to 25 years. Assurance of exchange rate
stability is the function of the IMF.

Q.151) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on
one side of (: :) and one word is given on another side (: :) while another word is to be found from the
given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the word of the given pair bear. Choose
the correct alternative.
Smell : Flower : : Taste : ?
[A] Water
[B] Salt
[C] food
[D] Sweet

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'Smell' is found in 'flower' and 'Taste' is found in 'food'.

Q.152) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on
one side of (: :) and one word is given on another side (: :) while another word is to be found from the
given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the word of the given pair bear. Choose
the correct alternative.
Burglar : House : : Pirate : ?
[A] Sea
[B] Ship
[C] Sailor
[D] Crew

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Second is robbed by first.

Q.153) In each of the following questions, certain pairs of words are given, out of which the words in
all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the odd pair.
[A] Man : Garage
[B] Pig : Sty
[C] Horse : Stable
[D] Cow : Shed

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Except pair (a), the second word in all other pairs shows place of living of first word
Q.154) In each of the following questions, certain pairs of words are given, out of which the words in
all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the odd pair.
[A] Aphid : Paper
[B] Moth : Wool
[C] Termite : Wood
[D] Locust : Plant

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In all other pairs, first is the insect which damages the second.

Q.155) Pointing to sneha in the photograph, Lily said, "his mother has a grandchild whose father is
my brother". How is Sneha related to Lily?
[A] sister
[B] sister-in-law
[C] daughter
[D] mother

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sister-in-law

Q.156) Pointing to a photograph, a lady said, " This woman's daughter's brother is my husband", how
is this woman related to the lady?
[A] mother
[B] sister
[C] mother-in-law
[D] niece

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: mother-in -law

Q.157) A man leaves for his office from his house. He walks towards East. After moving a distance
of 20 m, he turns South and walks 10 m. Then he walks 35 m towards the West and further 5
m towards the North. He then turns towards East and walks 15 m. What is the straight distance (in
meters) between his initial and final position?
[A] 0
[B]5
[C] Cannot be determined
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The movements of the man from A to F are as shown in Figure Clearly,
DC = AB + EF
Therefore, F is in line with A
Also, AF = (BC – DE) = 5 m.
So, the man is 5 meters away from his initial position.
Q.158) There are four persons A, B, C and D. The total amount of money with A and B together is
equal to the total amount of money with C and D together but the total amount of money with B and
D together is more than the amount of money with A and C together. The amount of money with A is
more than that with B. Who has the least amount of money ?
[A] B
[B]D
[C]E
[D] Cannot be determined

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: According to the question,
A + B = C + D; B + D > A + C; A > B
Now, B + D > A + C and A > B
⇒ B+D>A+C>B+C⇒ B+D>B+C⇒ D>C
Now, B + D > A + C ⇒ B + D = A + C + K
Also, A + B = C + D ⇒ B - D = C - A
⇒ 2B = 2C + K ⇒ B > C ⇒ A > B > C
D>C
Clearly, each one of A, D and b has more amount than C. Hence, C has the least amount.

Q.159) Which number will replace the question mark(?) in the following series?
[A] 24
[B] 14
[C] 21
[D] 18

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In the following question
3, 5, 7, 8, 15, ?, 31, 26
There is a gap of 7-3=4; 15-7=8; 31-15=16
In the same way 8-5=3; ?-8=6; 26-?=12
So in place of ? ,14 will satisfy thecondition.

Option B is correct

Q.160) Five articles, bat, ball, fan, table and chair, are kept one above the other (not necessarily in the
same order). The bat is four places above the fan. The table is between the ball and the chair. The
chair is three places below the bat. Which article is at the second position from the top?
[A] Fan
[B] Table
[C] Table
[D] Chair

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: As per given conditions, the following order is obtained:

Hence, Ball is at the second position from the top.

Q.161) Five teachers, H, K, P, R and T, are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre
(not necessarily in the same order). T is between H and R. P is second to the right of R. H is to the
immediate left of T. Who is sitting to the immediate left of K?
[A] T
[B] H
[C]P
[D] R

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: As per given data, circular table arrangement is as follows:

Hence, R is sitting to the immediate left of K.

Q.162) Six laptops, N, Q, P, L, R and A, are placed in a row facing towards the north (not necessarily
in the same order). N is placed to the immediate left of A. R is placed second to the left of Q. P is
placed second to the right of A. P is placed to the immediate right of R. L is placed to the left of N.
Which laptop is placed to the immediate right of L?
[A]N
[B]Q
[C]P
[D] A

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: N is placed to the immediate right of L.

Q.163) Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly illustrates the relationship among the
classes Carrot, Food, Vegetables?
[A]

[B]

[C]

[D]

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: As we know that ,
Carrot comes under the class vegetable and vegetable comes under the class food.
From above it is clear that option ( A ) gives the best relationship
between Carrot, Food and Vegetables .As shown in venn - diagram.

Q.164) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in
each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows
of number are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to the right.
Rules
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number,they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number, they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be
subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) if an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the
second number.
(v) If an add number is followed by an even number, the second one is to be subtracted from the first
number.
12 64 17
20 m 16
If 'm' is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
[A] 69
[B] 85
[C] 101
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Rules
(i) (odd number) + (Composite odd number)
(ii) (Even number) + (Odd number)
(iii) (Even number) → (Perfect square number), then (Perfect square number) - (Even number)
(iv) (Odd number) ÷ (Prime odd number)
(v) (Odd number) - (Even number)
1st Row 12 64 17 ⇒ 64 - 12 = 52 [rule (iii)]
⇒ 52 + 17 = 69 [rule (ii)]
=m
2nd Row 20 m 16 ⇒ 20 69 16
⇒ 20 + 69 = 89 [rule (ii)]
⇒ 89 - 16 = 73 [rule (v)]
∴ Resultant of second row = 73
Q.165) From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/
embedded.

[A]1
[B]2
[C]3
[D] 4

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:

Q.166) Three Hikers A, B and C start on a trip with Rs. 50 each and agree to share the expenses
equally. If at the end of the trip. A has Rs. 20 left with him, B Rs.30 and C Rs. 40 how must they
settle their accounts ?
[A] C must pay Rs. 10 to A
[B] A must pay Rs. 10 to B
[C] A must pay Rs. 10 to C
[D] Can't be settled

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: All should have equal amount of money at the end of trip. So C must pay Rs. 10 to A

Q.167) A and B together can do a work in 8 days. If A alone can do it in 12 days, then in how many
days can B alone do it ?
[A] 12 days
[B] 20 days
[C] 24 days
[D] 28 days

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Required time taken by B to complete the work = xy / x - y
[Here x = 12 and y = 8]
⇒ required time = (12 x 8) / (12 - 8) = 96/4 = 24 days

Q.168) A man crosses a streets 600 m long in 5 minutes. His speed in km per hour is ?
[A] 7.2
[B] 3.6
[C] 10
[D] 8.4

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Speed = 600 / (5 x 60) m/sec.
= 600 / (5 x 60) x 18/5 km/hr.
= 7.2 km/hr.

Q.169) In a ratio which is equal to 5 : 8. If the antecedent is 40 then consequent is ?

[A] 25
[B] 64
[C] 48
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: ∵ 5 : 8 : : 40 : N
N = (40 x 8) / 5
∴ consequent N = 64

Q.170) The fraction equivalent to 2/5% is ?

[A] 1/40
[B] 1/125
[C] 1/250
[D] 1/500

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 2/5% = (2/5) /100 = 1/250

Q.171) At kul - kul petrol pump the operator gives 5% less petrol but he sells it at the cost price.What
is his profit in this way ?
[A] 5%
[B] 5.6%
[C] 5.26%
[D] 4.78%

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: He sells 95 litre petrol at the price of 100 litre.
So profit % = [ 5 / 95 ] X 100 = 5.26%

Q.172) A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 2240 in 2 years and Rs. 2600 in 5 years.
The sum is ?
[A] Rs. 1880
[B] Rs. 2000
[C] Rs. 2120
[D] Data inadequate

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
S.I for 3 years = Rs. (2600 - 2240) = Rs . 360
S.I for 2 years = Rs. (360/3 x 2) = Rs. 240
∴ Required sum = Rs . (2240 - 240) = Rs. 2000
Q.173) A sum of Rs. 2400 deposited at CI, Double after 5 yr. After 20 yr it will become ?
[A] Rs. 24000
[B] Rs. 38400
[C] Rs. 19200
[D] Cannot be determined

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 2P = P (1 + R/100) 5
⇒ 24 P = P(1 + R/100)20
⇒ The amount becomes 24 times
= 16 times and required amount = 2400 x 16 = Rs. 38400

Q.174) Which of the fractions 1/2, 3/7, 3/5, 4/9 is the smallest ?
[A] 4/9
[B] 3/5
[C] 3/7
[D] 1/2

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 3/7

Q.175) In the year 2011, Shantanu gets a total of 3832.5 Rupee as his pocket allowence. Find his
pocket allowence per day.
[A] 9.5 Rupees
[B] 10.5 Rupees
[C] 12.5 Rupees
[D] 11.5 Rupees

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Allowance per day = total allowance / number of days in year
= 3832.5 / 365
= 10.5 Rupees

Q.176) Identify the points that are correctly related to the recent (July‘21) approvals
made by the Union Cabinet:
A) The last date for registration of Atma Nirbhar Rojgar Yojana (ABRY), which is
implemented by EPFO, is extended till 31st March, 2022
B) Cabinet approved the revised strategy for implementing BharatNet – optical fibre
connectivity to 16 states through Public Private Partnership
C) India will sign an MoU with Gambia to strengthen bilateral cooperation in
Personnel Administration and Governance
[A] All A, B & C
[B] Only A & C
[C] Only B
[D] Only B & C

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi accorded approval
for several initiatives. i.The last date for registration of beneficiaries for availing the benefit
under Atma Nirbhar Rojgar Yojana (ABRY) has been extended from 30th June, 2021
to 31st March, 2022.
· Under ABRY, establishments registered with EPFO and their new employees
drawing a monthly wage of less than INR 15,000 are being benefited
i. The cabinet approved the revised implementation strategy of BharatNet through
Public Private Partnership mode (PPP) in 16 states of India with optical
fibre connectivity
ii. Approved the signing of an MoU between India & Gambia to strengthen bilateral cooperation in
Personnel Administration and Governance Reforms.
Q.177) Identify the country that recently (in July‘21) got Certified by WHO as Malaria-free:
[A] Sri Lanka
[B] Vietnam
[C] Thailand
[D] China

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The World Health Organization (WHO) awarded China a malaria-free
certification. This certification recognized China‘s 70-year effort to eradicate this disease.
i. Countries that have achieved at least 3 consecutive years of zero indigenous cases can apply for
WHO certification

Q.178) Who headed the team that created the 69-feet World‘s Tallest Sandcastle in Denmark?
[A] Sudarsan Pattnaik
[B] Wilfred Stijger
[C] Anish Kapoor
[D] Dan Belcher

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The sandcastle created by the Dutch Designers team led by Wilfred Stijger, which
stands around 69 feet tall becomes the World‘s Tallest Sandcastle, created as a part of the sandcastle
festival in Blokhus, Denmark.

Q.179) Who was awarded the Kuvempu Rashtriya Puraskar for 2020?
[A] Rajendra Kishore Panda
[B] Gurbhachan Singh Bhullar
[C] Jayanta Mahapatra
[D] Arvind Krishna Mehrotra

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A poet and novelist from Odisha, Dr. Rajendra Kishore Panda (77), has been named for
the Kuvempu Rashtriya Puraskar for 2020.

Q.180) What is India‘s rank in the Global Cybersecurity Index 2020 released by the International
Telecommunication Union (ITU)?
[A] 4th
[B] 43rd
[C] 47th
[D] 10th

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In the Global Cybersecurity Index 2020 released by International
Telecommunication Union (ITU), India with a score of 97.5 has been ranked 10th (India was
placed at the 47th spot in the last edition of GCI in 2018) in the Index, while the list was
topped by USA.
Among the Asia-Pacific nations, South Korea & Singapore topped the index, while India was
ranked 4th.

Q.181) Identify the country that launched the World‘s 1st Meteorological Satellite for Civil services
called ―Fengyun-3E (FY-3E)‖ that operates on the Dawn-Dusk orbit:
[A] China
[B] Japan
[C] South Korea
[D] Israel
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: China National Space Administration (CNSA) launched a new meteorological satellite
‗Fengyun-3E (FY- 3E)‘ aboard a Long March-4C carrier rocket from Jiuquan Satellite Launch Center
in China. Called the ‗dawn satellite‘, FY-3E is the world‘s 1st meteorological satellite for civil service
in a dawn-dusk orbit. A dawn-to-dusk orbit is a sun-synchronous orbit in which the satellite tracks but
never moves into the Earth‘s shadow.

Q.182) As per the July 2021 rankings of International Hockey Federation (FIH), Indian Men‘s team
was ranked at _________ position, while the ranking was topped by____________ .
[A] 6th; England
[B] 10th; England
[C] 4th; Australian
[D] 10th; Netherland

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In the recent rankings released by the International Hockey Federation (FIH), the
positions of Indian Men‘s and Women‘s Hockey teams remain unaltered at 4th and 10th position
respectively. i.Australian Men‘s team and Netherlands Women Team topped topped the list

Q.183) Who authored the book, ―The Struggle Within – A Memoir of the Emergency‖?
[A] S. Ramakrishnan
[B] Ashok Chakravarti
[C] Satyender Kishore
[D] Krishnamurthy Subramanian

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A New book titled ―The Struggle Within – A Memoir of the Emergency‖ was
authored by Ashok Chakravarti, an economist and senior Economic Advisor to the Government of
Zimbabwe.

Q.184) Who authored the book, ―Nathuram Godse: The True Story of Gandhi‘s Assassin‖?
[A] Arun Shourie
[B] Rajdeep Sardesai
[C] Dhaval Kulkarni
[D] Shashi Tharoor

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Journalist Dhaval Kulkarni has authored a book titled ―Nathuram Godse: The True
Story of Gandhi‘s Assassin‖, the biography of Nathuram Godse, the assassin of Mahatma Gandhi.

Q.185) Padma Vibhushan awardee & famous Bollywood actor Dilip Kumar passed away in July
2021. What is his nickname in Bollywood?
[A] He-Man of Indian Cinema
[B] Angry Man of Bollywood
[C] Shahenshah of Bollywood
[D] Tragedy King of Bollywood

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Veteran Bollywood Actor and Padma Awardee Dilip Kumar, popularly known
as the ‗Tragedy King of Bollywood‘, passed away in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
i.He received Padma Vibhushan in 2015.
ii.He is the only Indian to be honoured with ―Nishan-e-Imtiaz‖, Pakistan‘s highest civilian honour
Q.186) When is the National Chartered Accountants' Day annually observed in India?
[A] 1st July
[B] 30th June
[C] 2nd July
[D] 28th June

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The National Chartered Accountants'(CA) Day is annually observed across India
on July 1st to commemorate the establishment of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of
India(ICAI) by the Parliament under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.

Q.187) In July 2021, Researchers from DBT-ILS & SRM institute decoded the genome sequence of
‗Avicennia marina‘. What is ‗Avicennia marina‘?
[A] Mangrove Species
[B] Zoonotic Virus
[C] Rodent Species
[D] Coffee plant

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Scientists at the Department of Biotechnology-Institute of Life Sciences (DBT-ILS),
Bhubaneswar, Odisha and SRM Institute of Science & Technology, Tamil Nadu for the 1st time
reported a reference-grade whole genome sequence of ‗Avicennia marina‘, a highly salt-tolerant and
salt-secreting true-mangrove species.

Q.188) Name the organization that recently (in Sept‘ 21) signed a contract from the Indian Navy
for manufacture & supply of the Naval Anti Drone System (NADS) that was developed by
DRDO.
[A] Ordnance Factory Board
[B] Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
[C] National Informatics Center
[D] Bharat Electronics Limited

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Indian Navy signed a contract with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) for the
manufacture and supply of India‘s 1st indigenously developed Naval Anti Drone System (NADS),
developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), with both ‗hard kill‘
and ‗soft kill capabilities

Q.189) In September 2021, ‗Combined Reciprocal Common Transport Agreement‘ was launched
by __________at 40th meeting of the NCR Planning Board which also saw the launch of __________
, a geo sensing portal.
[A] Hardeep Singh Puri; Abhiman
[B] Hardeep Singh Puri; Pariman
[C] Nitin Gadkari; Abhiman
[D] Nitin Gadkari; Pariman

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hardeep Singh Puri launched the Combined Reciprocal Common Transport
Agreement (CRCTA) at the 40th meeting of the National Capital Region Planning Board. It
was for the carriage facilities among the governments of Haryana, Rajasthan, Delhi and Uttar
Pradesh.
i. Online geo portal- ―Pariman‖ based on remote sensing and GIS technology developed
by NIC for NCR( National Capital Region) Planning Board was also launched.
Q.190) Name the person who chaired the 6th BRICS Energy Ministers Meeting 2021 that was
held under the Chairship of India.
[A] Devusinh Chauhan
[B] Bhagwanth Khuba
[C] Krishan Pal Gurjar
[D] Rajkumar Ranjan Singh

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Minister of State Krishan Pal Gurjar, Ministry of Power virtually chaired the 6th
meeting of BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) Energy Ministers 2021 under the
Chairship of India. A Joint Communique, for mutual Cooperation in Energy Access and
Affordability, was also adopted in the meeting.

Q.191) Who won the ―Behler Turtle Conservation Award 2021‖ for bringing 3 critically
endangered turtle conservation species back from the edge of extinction?
[A] Imran Ali
[B] Samit K Brahamachari
[C] Lalji Singh
[D] Shailendra Singh

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Indian biologist Shailendra Singh won ―2021 Behler Turtle Conservation
Award‖ also known as ‗‘Nobel Prize for Turtle Conservation‖ for bringing 3 critically
endangered turtle conservation species back from the edge of extinction.
i. These species are red-crowned roofed turtle (Batagur kachuga), northern river terrapin (Batagur
baska), and black softshell turtle (Nilssonia nigricans)

Q.192) Name the Airport that won National Energy Leader 2021 & Excellent Energy Efficient
Unit 2021 at the 22nd National Award Ceremony for ‗Excellence in Energy Management‖.
[A] Mumbai International Airport
[B] Cochin International Airport
[C] Delhi International Airport
[D] Noida International Airport

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Delhi International Airport Limited (DIAL) led by GMR Group won
2 Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) National Energy Leader 2021 & Excellent Energy
Efficient Unit 2021 at the 22nd National Award Ceremony for ‗Excellence in Energy Management‖
organised by CII Green Business Centre.

Q.193) As per the ‗QS Global MBA Rankings: Global 2022‘,_____________ topped B-School
ranking in India while IIM Bangalore ranked___________ in the global ranking.
[A] IIM Ahmedabad; 40
[B] IIM Ahmedabad; 50
[C] University of Delhi; 40
[D] IIM Calcutta; 50

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: As per the ‗QS Global MBA Rankings: Global 2022‘, released by Quacquarelli
Symonds, IIM Ahmedabad, Gujarat topped B-School ranking in India while IIM
Bangalore ranked 50 in the list.
i. Stanford Graduate School of Business, Stanford, USA topped the list all over the world.
Q.194) Identify the company that designed & developed Hansa New Generation aircraft
which successfully made its maiden flight recently in September 2021.
[A] Defence Research and Development Organisation
[B] Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd
[C] CSIR- National Aerospace Laboratories
[D] Bharat Electronics

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: CSIR- National Aerospace Laboratories, Bengaluru, Karnataka designed &
developed Hansa New Generation aircraft which successfully made its maiden flight & all
flight parameters were found normal.
i. The project director of HANSA is Abbani Rinku.

Q.195) Who became the first Indian to be a part of NBA title winning team ‗Sacramento
Kings‘?
[A] Satnam Singh
[B] Amritpal Singh
[C] Ajmer SIngh
[D] Princepal Singh

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Princepal Singh Bajwa from Punjab became the first Indian to be part of an NBA
title winning team when his team Sacramento Kings won the 2021 NBA Summer League in Las
Vegas against the Boston Celtics.

Q.196) Who compiled the book titled ―Haryana Environment and Pollution Code‖?
[A] Aravind Adiga
[B] Sundeep Mishra
[C] Manu Joseph
[D] Dheera Khandelwal

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Manohar Lal Khattar, CM of Haryana, released the new book titled ―Haryana
Environment and Pollution Code‖ compiled by former IAS officer and poet Dheera Khandelwal.

Q.197) In September 2021, Vasoo Paranjape passed away. He belongs to which sport?
[A] Football
[B] Wrestling
[C] Cricket
[D] Tennis

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Former Indian cricketer and renowned coach, Vasoo Paranjape passed away. His son
Jatin co- authored a book along with cricket journalist Anand Vasu based on the life story of Vasudeo
Paranjape titled ‗Cricket Drona: For the Love of Vasoo Paranjape‘.

Q.198) ___________ is annually observed as ‗National Teachers Day‘ across India to commemorate
the birth anniversary of ____________ .
[A] 7th September; Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan
[B] 6th September; Rajendra Prasad
[C] 6th September; Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan
[D] 5th September; Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: National Teachers day is annually observed across India on 5th September to
commemorate the birth anniversary of the respected teacher and prolific statesman Bharat Ratna
awardee Dr Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan.
i. President Ram Nath Kovind presented the National Teachers Awards 2021 to the 44 teachers.
‗Shikshak Parv 2021‘ will also be celebrated from 5th to 17th September across India.

Q.199) What was the theme of 2021‘s International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies that is
annually observed across the globe by the UN on 7th September?
[A] Clean Air for All
[B] Reimagine, Recreate & Restore
[C] Ecosystem Restoration
[D] Healthy Air, Healthy Planet

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: UN‘s International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies is annually observed
across the globe on 7th September. The theme of the International Day of Clean Air for
Blue Skies 2021 is ―Healthy Air, Healthy Planet‖.
i. ―European and Central Asian Actions on Air Quality‖ by UNEP was launched ahead of the
International Day of clear air for blue skies.

Q.200) In September 2021, Tamil Nadu announced its plan to establish India‘s first-ever
__________ Conservation Reserve in __________ .
[A] Walrus; Pulicat Lake
[B] Dugong; Pak Bay
[C] Dugong; Pulicat Lake
[D] Walrus; Pak Bay

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Tamil Nadu announced the plan to establish India‘s first-ever Dugong (also known
as Sea Cows) Conservation Reserve in the marine region of Palk Bay, in the southern coastal region
of Tamil Nadu.
i. The dugong are endangered and currently listed as vulnerable to extinction species based on the
International Union for Conservation of Nature(IUCN) 1996 red list- species.