Q.

1) In the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given word
Impudent
[A] Vigilant
[B] Astute
[C] Insolent
[D] Arrogant

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The meaning of word Impudent (Adjective) is: not showing due respect for another
person.
Insolent is the correct synonym which means—to show a rude and arrogant attitude.

Q.2) In the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given word
Pompous
[A] Pretentious
[B] Supportive
[C] Demanding
[D] Flashy

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The meaning of word Pompous (Adjective) is : self-important.
It's synonym should be: Pretentious.

Q.3) In the following questions, choose the word opposite ii meaning to the given word.
Appreciation
[A] Aspersions
[B] Admiration
[C] Commendation
[D] Compliment

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The meaning of word Appreciation (Noun) is: Thankfulness It‘s antonym should be:
Aspersions. e.g., to criticise harshly.

Q.4) In the following questions, choose the word opposite ii meaning to the given word.
Supple
[A] Pliant
[B] Pliable
[C] Rigid
[D] Flexible

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The meaning of word Supple (Adjective) is: Flexible. Its Antonym should be: Rigid.

Q.5) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom / Phrase. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning Of the Idiom / Phrase.
Hue and cry
[A] lot of laughter
[B] an uproar
[C] a burst of anger
[D] plenty of tears

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Idiom 'Hue and Cry' means a loud clamour or public outcry.

Q.6) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom / Phrase. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning Of the Idiom / Phrase.
To win laurels
[A] to achieve success
[B] to win the hearts of ladies
[C] to win praise
[D] to win a lottery

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Idiom 'To win laurels 'means: to win honour/respect.

Q.7) In questions, out four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted of the given
words/sentence.
A general pardon granted by the Government to political offenders
[A] Pardon
[B] Excuse
[C] Honesty
[D] Amnesty

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Amnesty is an official pardon for people who have been convicted of political offences.

Q.8) In questions, out four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted of the given
words/sentence.
One who hates women:
[A] Misogynist
[B] Misogamist
[C] Ambivert
[D] Misanthrope

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Misogynist

Q.9) In questions, out four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted of the given
words/sentence.
A school boy who cuts classes frequently is a:
[A] Defeatist
[B] Sycophant
[C] Truant
[D] Martlinet

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Truant refers to a pupil who stays away from school without leave or explanation.

Q.10) In questions, out four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted of the given
words/sentence.
A person who consumes human flesh:
[A] Cannibal
[B] Javage
[C] Captor
[D] Carnivore

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Cannibal

Q.11) This house ________ten rooms

[A] consisted with
[B] consist of
[C] consists of
[D] consists by

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Consists of means comprises of

Q.12) Have you even ______ the wolf cry ?

[A] heard
[B] heard of
[C] hear out
[D] hear

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Have you heard is correct use.

Q.13) A freen _______that the weather was very pleasant that day.
[A] suggested
[B] argued
[C] announced
[D] remarked

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Here 'remarked' refers to giving your opinion about something or stating a fact

Q.14) Mrs. Hall was prepared to excuse the scientist's strange habits and _______temper
[A] irritate
[B] irate
[C] irritable
[D] irritation

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Since ‗irritable‘ means showing a tendency to be easily annoyed, it is the correct
option.

Q.15) The starving man _____ able to walk.

[A] can barely
[B] were barely
[C] are barely
[D] was barely

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: was barely

Q.16) Once, I have visited America. I know . . . . . cities there.

[A] few
[B] a few
[C] little
[D] a little

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Few is a quantifier used with plural countable nouns. Little is used with singular
uncountable nouns. Cities are plural countable nouns. "A few" means some. Option B is correct.

Q.17) One of students . . . . . absent today.

[A] was
[B] were
[C] had
[D] are

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: One of students was absent today.

Q.18) . . . . . I use your cell phone as I have forgotten mine?

[A] May
[B] Should
[C] Would
[D] Do

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: May I use your cell phone as I have forgotten mine?

Q.19) Divya . . . . . Dimple if she could take her scooty.

[A] told
[B] helped
[C] sent
[D] asked

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Divya asked Dimple if she could take her scooty.

Q.20) We . . . . . . our home work just now.

[A] are finished
[B] have finished
[C] had finished
[D] are finishing

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: We have finished our home work just now. because sentence is in present perfect
tense.

Q.21) There . . . . . many children on the playground yesterday.

[A] are
[B] were
[C] did
[D] playing

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: There were many children on the playground yesterday.

Q.22) ‘To arrive’ means . . . . . .

[A] to go
[B] to come
[C] to see
[D] to arrest
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: to arrive --- reach a place at the end of a journey or a stage in a journey.

Q.23) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/indirect speech. But of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech
and mark.
I said to my friend, "Can you pick me up after work?"
[A] I asked my friend if he can pick me up after work
[B] I asked my friend if he could pick me up after work.
[C] I told my friend to pick me up after work
[D] I told my friend if I could pick him up after work

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: I asked my friend if he could pick me up after work.

Q.24) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/indirect speech. But of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech
and mark.
Suman said to me, "Did you enjoy the Olympic Games London
[A] Suman asked me if I had enjoyed the Olympic Games in London
[B] Suman asked me did I enjoy the Olympic Games in London
[C] Suman asked me if I enjoyed the Olympic Games in London
[D] Suman asked me if I was enjoyed the Olympic Games in London

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Suman asked me if I enjoyed the Olympic Games in London.

Q.25) Narration Change

Manna asked Rohan, "Have you sat in a trolley bus before ?"
[A] Manna asked Rohan had he sat in a trolley bus earlier
[B] Manna asked Rohan had he sat in a trolley bus before
[C] Manna asked Rohan if he sat on a trolley bus before
[D] Manna asked Rohan if he has ever sat in a trolley bus

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Manna asked Rohan had he sat in a trolley bus earlier.

Q.26) Which among the following sites of Indus Valley Civilization

marks the ―Absence of Mother goddess figurines‖ ?
[A] Lothal
[B] Kalibangan
[C] Rangpur
[D] Harappa

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Correct Answer: C [Rangpur]

Q.27) Which among the following sites has given the evidence of an earliest recorded ―Earthquake‖?
[A] Kalibangan
[B] Lothal
[C] Surkotda
[D] Harappa

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Kalibangan is also a site which has given evidence of earliest recorded ―Earthquake‖.
The earthquake is dated back to 2600 BC and is considered to have contributed to the end of this
remarkable site of the Indus Valley Civilization.

Q.28) The regions where the Aryans settled in India was called Saptasindhu , which was pronounced
as haptahindu as well. What was the other term used for this area?
[A] Mahabharata
[B] Aryavarta
[C] Pataliputra
[D] Brahmavarta

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Correct Answer: D [Brahmavarta]

Q.29) What is the number of Richas in Rigveda?

[A] 1810
[B] 731
[C] 10600
[D] 5839

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The Rig Veda contains about 10,600 richas organized into 191 suktas. The other three
Vedas use similar terminology.

Q.30) Who among the following built the Gomateshwara statue at Sravanabelagola?
[A] Chandragupta Maurya
[B] Kharvela
[C] Amoghavarsha
[D] Chamundaraya

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Bahubali also called Gomateshwara was an Arihant. According to Jainism, he was
the second of the hundred sons of the first Tirthankara, Rishabha and king of Podanpur. A monolithic
statue of Bahubali referred to as ―Gommateshvara‖ built by the Ganga dynasty minister and
commander Chamundaraya is a 60 feet (18 m) monolith and is situated
above a hill in Shravanabelagola, in the Hassan district of Karnataka. It was built in the 10th
century AD.

Q.31) During whose reign the Third Buddhist Council was organized?
[A] Ashoka
[B] Kalasoka
[C] Ajatsatru
[D] Kanishka

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The Third Buddhist Council was held at Patliputra during the reign of Emperor Ashoka.
It was held under the Presidentship of Moggliputra Tissa to revise scriptures.

Q.32) Which among the following is not correctly matched?

[A] Takshshila – Gandhar
[B] Viratanagara – Matsya
[C] Sursen – Kausambi
[D] All are correct

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Sursen was capital of Mathura and Capital of Kausambi was Vatsa

Q.33) In the revenue department of Mauryas, who among the following was in-charge of the
collection of all revenues in the empire?
[A] Sannidhatri
[B] Pradeshta
[C] Yukta
[D] Samahatra

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Mauryan administration: Samaharta – chancellor of the exchequer; responsible for the
collection of revenue. The Revenue Department had Samharta who was incharge of the collection of
all revenues in the empire

Q.34) In the Mauryan empire, the post Devatadhyaksha is related to –

[A] Store House
[B] Crown Lands
[C] Customs
[D] Religious Institutions

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Devatadhyaksha was appointed to perform the duties related to religious institutions.

Q.35) Who among the following Gupta emperor made Ujjain as his second capital?
[A] Samudragupta
[B] Chandragupta II
[C] Kumargupta I
[D] Kumargupta I

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Chandragupta II Vikramaditya made Ujjain as second capital of his empire.

Q.36) In context with the ―Village Headman‖ of Gupta Era in ancient India,
consider the following statements:
1. The Village headman used to manage the village daily affairs with the consent of the King
2. No land transaction could be effected without the consent of the Village headman
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: First statement is incorrect because, they used to manage village affairs with the
consent of elders of the village

Q.37) Who among the following is known as the Father of Hindi Khari Boli?
[A] Amir Khusrau
[B] Malik Muhammad Jayasi
[C] Kabir
[D] Adbur Rahim Khan-i-Khanan

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The Father of Hindi Khari Boli was Amir Khusrau. It originated in Delhi and adjacent
regions within the Ganga Yamuna Doab. It absorbed numerous Arabic, Hindavi and Persian words
and became the lingua franca of North India.

Q.38) Kirti Stambh of Chittor was constructed during the rule of which Rajput ruler?
[A] Rana Kumbha
[B] Rana Hammir
[C] Rana Ratan Singh
[D] Rana Sangram Singh

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The Kirti Stambha was built to commemorate the victory of Rana Kumbha. It is also
called Tower of Fame.

Q.39) Which of the following literature does not belongs to reign of Akbar?
[A] Sursagar
[B] Rajavalipataka
[C] Ramcharitmanas
[D] Sirr-i-Akbar

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Sirr-i-Akbar was the persion translation of Upanishads by Dara Shikoh during the reign
of Shah Jahan.

Q.40) Who among the following defeated Babur in the Battle of Sar-e-Pul?
[A] Abdullah Khan Uzbek
[B] Shaibani Khan
[C] Ubaydullah Khan
[D] Jani Beg

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The battle of Sar-i-Pul (April-May 1501) was an early defeat suffered by Babur after he
had captured the city of Samarkand for a second time. Shaibani Khan took up a position five miles
further west, and then began to probe Babur's position.

Q.41) The Mughal General, who decisively defeated Shivaji and forced him to conclude the
Treaty of Purandar, was
[A] Shaista Khan
[B] Mirza Raja Jai Singh
[C] Prince Muazzam
[D] Dilir Khan

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Shivaji was forced to sign the agreement after Jai Singh besieged Purandar fort. When
Shivaji realised that war with the Mughal Empire would only cause damage to the empire and that his
men would suffer heavy losses, he chose to make a treaty instead of leaving his men under the
Mughals.

Q.42) Who amongst the following is considered to be the rather of Local Self-Government’ in
India?
[A] Lord Dalhousie
[B] Lord Canning
[C] Lord Curzon
[D] Lord Ripon
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Lord Ripon is regarded as the father of local self-government in India.

Q.43) Which one of the following pairs (G.G. and Event) is properly matched?
[A] Lord Cornwallis- Regulating Act
[B] Lord Wellesley - Permanent Settlement
[C] Lord Ellenborough - Annexation of Sindh
[D] Lord Dalhousie - First Afghan War

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The Baluchis were defeated by Napier in the battle of Miani on February 17, 1843.
After that all the Amirs surrendered to the English and Napier informed Ellenborough on June 14 :
―Paccavi I have (Sindh) sinned.‖ In 1843, Sindh was annexed to the British territories.

Q.44) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

[A] Hector Munro - Battle of Buxar
[B] Lord Hastings – Anglo-Nepal War
[C] Lord Wellesley - Fourth Anglo Mysore war
[D] Lord Cornwallis - Third Anglo- Maratha War

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The troops were led by Governor General Hastings, supported by a force under
General Thomas Hislop. Operations began against the Pindaris, a band of Muslim mercenaries and
Marathas from central India.

Q.45) The Archaeological survey of India was established in the period of

[A] Warren Hastings
[B] Lord Wellesley
[C] Lord Curzon
[D] Lord William Bentinck

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The Archaeological survey of India was established in the period of Lord Curzon.

Q.46) Which of them regarded 1857revolt as a Soldier Peasant struggle?

[A] R.C. Majumdar
[B] Karl Marx
[C] V.D. Savarkar
[D] K.M. Pannikar

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Kari Marx regarded 1857revolt as a soldier peasant struggle foreign imperialism and
indigenous landlordism.

Q.47) Which is the oldest English daily in India?

[A] The Hindustan Times
[B] The Statesman
[C] The Times of India
[D] The Indian Express

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: In 3 November 1838, The Times of India issued its first edition from Mumbai. In 1850,
it began to publish daily editions. It is the largest newspaper in India by circulation and largest selling
English-language daily in the world according to Audit Bureau of Circulations (India).
Q.48) Who is the Indian freedom fighter known as "Desh Ratna "?
[A] Rajendra Prasad
[B] Mahatma Gandhi
[C] Dadabhai Naoroji
[D] Vikram Sarabhai

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Rajendra Prasad is known as Desh Ratna.

Q.49) Who says ―Peace begins with a smile‖?

[A] Mother Teresa
[B] Bal Gangadhar Tilak
[C] Subhash Chandra Bose
[D] Chandra Shekhar Azad

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Mother Teresa once said, ―Peace begins with a smile. Smile five times a day at
someone you really don't want to smile at; do it for peace‖.

Q.50) In his early days Shivaji moved with

[A] Jat leaders
[B] Mawali leaders
[C] Santhals
[D] Bhils

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: In his early days Shivaji moved with Mawali leaders.

Q.51) The first factory by the Dutch was established at which among the following places?
[A] Surat
[B] Machilipatnam
[C] Negapatnam
[D] Pulicat

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Dutch East India Company was created in 1602 as ―United East India Company‖
and its first permanent trading post was in Indonesia. In India, they established the first factory in
Masulipattanam in 1605, followed by Pulicat in 1610, Surat in 1616, Bimilipatam in 1641 and
Chinsura in 1653.

Q.52) Who among the following has written the ―Civil Disobedience‖ that had a profound impact on
Gandhi?
[A] Leo Tolstoy
[B] John Ruskin
[C] Karl Marx
[D] Henry David Thoreau

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Henry David Thoreau was an American author, poet, and philosopher, who is best
known for his book Walden, a reflection upon simple living in natural surroundings, and his essay
Civil Disobedience, an argument for individual resistance to civil government in moral opposition to
an unjust state. Thoreau‘s philosophy of civil disobedience influenced the political thoughts and
actions of such later figures as Leo Tolstoy, Mahatma Gandhi, and Martin Luther King, Jr
Q.53) Who said that Gandhi may die, but Gandhism shall remain forever ?
[A] Mahatma Gandhi
[B] Jawaharlal Nehru
[C] Subhash Chandra Bose
[D] Rabindranath Tagore

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Gandhiji said Gandhi may die, but Gandhism shall remain forever in 1931 Karachi
session

Q.54) Who represented India in the 2ND round table conference?

[A] Mahatma Gandhi
[B] B. R. Ambedkar
[C] Jawaharlal Nehru
[D] Muhammad Ali Jinnah

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Second Round Conference opened on September 7, 1931. Gandhi represented
Indian National Congress and Sarojini Naidu represented Indian women. Madan Mohan Malaviya,
Ghanshyam Das Birla, Muhammad Iqbal, Sir Mirza Ismail Diwan of Mysore, S K Dutta and Sir Syed
Ali Imam were other people that attended the conference. This conference saw an overwhelming
number of Indian delegates. These included loyalists, communalists, careerists, big landlords,
representatives of the princes etc.

Q.55) Every year in January, India and Pakistan exchange their list of nuclear installations through
their diplomatic missions under an agreement on prohibition of attacks against nuclear installation and
facility. In which year, such agreement was signed?
[A] 1986
[B] 1988
[C] 1990
[D] 1992

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The agreement, which was signed on December 31, 1988 and came into force on
January 27, 1991, says the two countries inform each other of nuclear installations and facilities to be
covered under the agreement on January 1 of every calendar year.

Q.56) Who among the following established Tattvabodhini Sabha?

[A] Raja Rammohan Roy
[B] Debendranath Tagore
[C] Keshub Chandra Sen
[D] Dwarkanath Tagore

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Before Debendranath joined the Brahmo Samaj, he had organized a Tattvaranjini
Sabhaat Calcutta. The same Sabha was later known as Tattvabodhini Sabha. The objective of
Tattvabodhini Sabha was to encourage religious inquiries and disseminate the essence of Upanishads

Q.57) Which act was introduced by British govt to address the short comings of the East India
Company?
[A] Pitts India Act
[B] British Union Act
[C] 1707 Act of Union
[D] India Act 1784
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pitt‘s India Act 1784 or the East India Company Act 1784 was passed in the British
Parliament to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act 1773. It resulted in dual control or joint
government in India by Crown in Great Britain and the British East India Company, with crown
having ultimate authority. With this act, East India Company‘s political functions were differentiated
from its commercial activities for the first time. The relationship between company and crown
established by this act kept changing with time until the Government of India Act 1858 provided for
liquidation of the British East India Company

Q.58) Who founded the Banaras Hindu University ,the largest residential Central University in Asia
located in Varanasi
[A] Vivekananda
[B] Annie Besant
[C] Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya
[D] Jawahar lal Nehru

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In 1915, under Lord Hardinge, BHU act was passed by which Pandit Madan Mohan
Malviya established the Banaras Hindu University. The idea of this university was mooted as early as
1904.

Q.59) Who started the process of decentralization of finances in India?

[A] Lord Rippon
[B] Lord Mayo
[C] Lord Curzon
[D] Lord Minto

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Lord Mayo or Lord Naas served as 4th Viceroy of India from 12 January 1869 to 8
February 1872. He started the process of decentralization of finance. In foreign affairs, he followed
the policy of non- intervention. He opened up Mayo College in Ajmer for educating children of the
aristocratic families. India‘s census began during his tenure. He was the first Governor General to be
murdered in office by a Pathan Sher Ali in Port Blair

Q.60) Who presided over the first session of the All India Trade Union Congress in 1920 ?
[A] Purshottam Das Tandon
[B] Lala Lajpat Rai
[C] Kasturbhai Lalbhai
[D] Govind Vallabh Pant

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: On October 31, 1920, the first session of the All India Trade Union Congress was held
at Bombay under Lala Lajpat Roy, thus marking the beginning of AITUC.

Q.61) What was the original name of Mirabehn, an associate and disciple of Mahatma Gandhi?
[A] Oliver Schriener
[B] Millie Graham Polock
[C] Madeline Slade
[D] Margarate Cousins

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Madeleine Slade was in England and was named as Meera Behn by Mahatma Gandhi ,
whose disciple and associate she was. She was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 1982.
Q.62) Mahatama Gandhi had launched his first Satyagraha in India from which among the following
places?
[A] Kheda
[B] Bardoli
[C] Champaran
[D] Sabarmati

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Mahatma Gandhi‘s first Satyagraha

Q.63) Which among the following is the year of famous Queen Victoria‘s Proclamation assuming the
Government of India?
[A] 1857
[B] 1858
[C] 1859
[D] 1860

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: On November 1, 1858, Lord Canning sent forth the royal proclamation in a grand
Darbar at Allahabad via which Queen Victoria intimated that she had assumed the direct government
of India. This proclamation also set forth the principles on the basis of which India was to be
governed in future and the British policy towards people of British-Indian territories and princes

Q.64) Fraser Commission was established for reforms in which among the following in 1902?
[A] Army
[B] eduction
[C] Police
[D] Civil service

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In 1902-03, a Police Commission was established for the Police reforms under Sir
Andrew Frazer and Lord Curzon got much success in the Police intelligence.

Q.65) At which among the following places, the Muslim League was founded in 1906?
[A] Kolkata
[B] Murshidabad
[C] Dhaka
[D] Lucknow

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In Dec. 1906 ―All India Muslim League‖ was set up under the leadership of Aga Khan,
Nawab Salimullah Khan of Dacca and Nawab Mohsin-ul Mulk at Dacca. The League supported the
Partition of Bengal and opposed the Swadeshi Movement and demanded the special safeguards for its
community and separate electorate of Muslims.

Q.66) How many Prime Ministers of India have been awarded Bharat Ratna till date?
[A]3
[B]4
[C]5
[D] 7

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: So far Seven Prime Ministers of India have been awarded the Bharat Ratna. Atal Bihari
Vajapayee is the seventh Prime Minister to receive the award, after (1) Jawaharlal Nehru, (2) Indira
Gandhi, (3) Rajiv Gandhi, (4) Morarji Desai, (5) Lal Bahadur Shastri and (6) Gulzarilal Nanda
Q.67) Who among the following was the first chairman of UPSC?
[A] Sir Ross Barker
[B] Sir David Petrie
[C] Sir Eyre Gorden
[D] Sir F.W. Robertson

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: First Public Service Commission was established on October 1, 1926 under the
Chairmanship of Sir Ross Barker.
UPSC is constitutional body which conducts the prestigious civil services examination to select IAS,
IFS and IPS officers among others. It has been established under Article 315 of the Constitution and
consists of a Chairman and ten Members; appointed and removed by President. The chairman and
members of the Commission hold office for a term if six years or until they attain the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier

Q.68) Atal Bihari Vajpayee was sworn in as India‘s Prime Minister for how many times?
[A]1
[B]2
[C]3
[D] 4

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: May 1996-01 June 1996,
19 March 1998 -13 October 1999 and
13 October 1999 – 22 May 2004

Q.69) ‗Rajmala‘ is an important source of History of which among the following states of India?
[A] Nagaland
[B] Assam
[C] Tripura
[D] Jammu & Kashmir

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Rajmala is a chronicle of the kings of Tripura

Q.70) In which year, India launched it Look East Policy?

[A] 1986
[B] 1992
[C] 1994
[D] 1996

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: India‘s Look East Policy was for the first time pursued by Narsimharao Government in
1992. Under this policy, India focused its attention toward South-East Asia, which was long neglected
during the Cold war period. This policy was further cemented by successive prime ministers and now
converted into ―Act East Policy‖ by the current government.

Q.71) Who was the first Indian to get elected in House of commons?
[A] Bhikaji Kama
[B] JRD Tata
[C] Dadabhai Naoroji
[D] Dinshaw Edulji Wacha

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Dadabhai Naoroji is known as mentor of both Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Mahatma
Gandhi. His magnum opus ‗‗Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India‘‘ propounded the ‗‗drain theory‘‘
He was the first Indian to become a member of the House of Commons on the Liberal Party ticket. He
served as Member in the House of Commons from 1892 to 1895. He became the president of INC
thrice, in 1886, 1893 and 1906.

Q.72) Le Corbusier was the architect of which city among the following?
[A] New Delhi
[B] Chandigarh
[C] Mumbai
[D] Jaipur

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The best-known architect recruited to the efforts of creating a new India was one of the
founders of modernism in architecture, the Swiss Le Corbusier. The showpiece of his genius is
Chandigarh, built as the capital of Punjab and Haryana. Outside Chandigarh, Le Corbusier‘s most
influential structures include:
Sarabhai House, Ahamadabad
Millowner‘s Association Building, Ahmedabad. Interstate Bus Terminal, New Delhi
Permanent Exhibition Hall of Prāgati Maidan, New Delhi

Q.73) Which among the following incidents established the supremacy of British over French in
India?
[A] Battle of Buxar
[B] Battle of Wandiwash
[C] Carnatic Wars
[D] Battle of Chingleput

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The British forces under Sir Eyre Coote, defeated the French in the Battle of
Wandiwash in 1760 and besieged Pondicherry. After Wandiwash, the French capital of Pondicherry
fell to the British in 1761.

Q.74) Which among the following treaty was signed after Battle of Buxar?
[A] Treaty of Allahabad
[B] Treaty of Carnatic
[C] Treaty of Alinagar
[D] Treaty of Kanpur

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The important outcome of the Battle of Buxar was the Treaty of Allahabad signed on
16 August 1765 between Lord Clive and Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II, who had submitted to the
British in the battle. As per this treaty:
Mughal Emperor granted Fiscal Rights (Diwani) or right to administer the territory and collect taxes
to the East India Company at Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. Thus the British became the masters of fate of
the people of Bihar, Bengal and Orissa and now they would collect the revenue.
In lieu of this Right, the Company gave an annual tribute of 26 Lakh Rupees to the Mughals The
districts of Kora and Allahabad were returned to Mughal Emperor.
Awadh was returned to Shuja-ud-Daulah but Allahabad and Kora was taken from him. The Nawab of
Awadh paid 53 Lakhs rupees of war indemnity to the British.
Thus Clive, in person settled the fate of almost half of the Northern India. The fiscal administration of
Bengal, Behar, and Orissa and the territorial jurisdiction of the Northern Circars is called the Dual
System of Government
Q.75) Balwantrai Mehta, a pioneer of Panchayati Raj and a distinguished freedom fighter, was Chief
minister of which state?
[A] Maharastra
[B] Gujarat
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Madya Pradesh

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Balwantrai Mehta was one of the legendry freedom fighters of the country who
participated in the Bardoli Satyagraha. He is best known as second Chief Minister of Gujarat.He is
credited for pioneering the concept the Panchayati Raj in India and also known as Father of
Panchayati Raj in India

Q.76) Borra Caves are situated on the East Coast of India in which of the following hills?
[A] Nallamala Hills
[B] Horsley Hills
[C] Nagari Hills
[D] Ananthagiri Hills

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Borra Caves, also called Borra Guhalu, are located on the East Coast of India, in
the Ananthagiri hills of the Araku Valley of the Visakhapatnam district in Andhra Pradesh

Q.77) Which of the following pairs is CORRECT with reference to mountain passes?
[A] Rohtang-Sikkim
[B] Nathula-Arunachal Pradesh
[C] Bomdila-Himachal Pradesh
[D] Lipulekh- Uttarakhand

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Lipulekh is a Himalayan pass on the border between India's Uttarakhand state and the
Tibet region of China, near their trijunction with Nepal. Nepal has ongoing claims to the southern side
of the pass, called Kalapani territory, which is controlled by India.

Q.78) Kalumar Peak is the highest point in

[A] Karakoram
[B] Satpura
[C] Vindhya
[D] Aravalli

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Kalumar Peak/Sadbhavna Peak (Mandu, Madhya Pradesh) is the highest peak of the
Vindhya Range.

Q.79) Which of the following states of India has the longest coastline ?
[A] Kerala
[B] Odisha
[C] Maharashtra
[D] Gujarat

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Gujarat has the longest mainland coastline in India. However, the total length of India's
coastline is 7516.6 kilometers. Of this, the length of the mainland is 5422.6 kilometers whereas the
length of the Island territories is 2094 kilometers.
Q.80) Which of the following tribes is not found in Central India ?
[A] Gonds
[B] Todas
[C] Bhils
[D] Bhils

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Todas tribes is not found in Central India. Toda Tribe is the most ancient and unusual
tribe of Nilgiri Hills of Tamil nadu. The todas have their own language.

Q.81) Which of the following rivers drains into the Bay of Bengal ?
[A] Krishna
[B] Sutlej
[C] Tapi
[D] Narmada

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The source of the Krishna river is at Mahabaleshwar near the Jor village, Satara
District, Maharashtra and it empties into the Bay of Bengal at Hamsaladeevi (near Koduru) in Andhra
Pradesh..

Q.82) Which process leads to the formation of river deltas ?

[A] Erosion
[B] Deposition
[C] Evaporation
[D] Sedimentation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A river delta is a landform created by deposition of sediment that is carried by a river as
the flow leaves its mouth and enters slower-moving or stagnant water. This occurs where a river
enters an ocean, sea, estuary, lake, reservoir, or (more rarely) another river that cannot carry away the
supplied sediment.

Q.83) Which of the following is NOT a major basin in India?

[A] Luni Basin
[B] Krishna Basin
[C] Indus Basin
[D] Ganga- Brahmaputra Basin

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Luni (also known as Lonari, Lavanavari, Lavanavati, Salt river) is a river in Rajasthan.
It originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range, near Ajmer, passes through the southeastern
portion of the Thar Desert, and ends in the marshy lands of Rann of Kutch in Guj arat. Hence, it is not
a major river basin in India.

Q.84) Which of the following Canal Project is one of the longest canals of the Rayalseema
(South Andhra Pradesh) region?
[A] Sirhind Canal
[B] Kakatiya Canal
[C] Sharda Canal
[D] Handri Neeva Canal Project

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Handri Neeva Canal Project is one of the longest canals of the Rayalseema (South
Andhra Pradesh) region. It is 569 Km long and originates from Srisailam reservoir and runs through
four districts namely Anantpur Chittoor, Kadapa and Kurnool. Hence, D is the correct option.

Q.85) Which sanctuary has been selected as an alternative home for the Indian lion?
[A] Bandipur Sanctuary (Karnataka)
[B] Ghana Sanctuary (Bihar)
[C] Periyar Sanctuary (Kerala)
[D] Chandra Prabha Sanctuary (UP)

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Chandra Prabha Sanctuary (UP) has been selected as an alternative home for the Indian
lion.

Q.86) The Periyar Game Sanctuary in Kerala is renowned for

[A] Tiger
[B] Lion
[C] Wild elephant
[D] Spotted deer

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Periyar Game Sanctuary in Kerala is renowned for Wild elephant. It is notable as
an elephant reserve and a tiger reserve.

Q.87) What is Bandipur Sanctuary situated in Karnataka particularly noted for

[A] Wild Elephant
[B] Indian Bison
[C] Rhinoceros
[D] Spotted Deer

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Bandipur Sanctuary, situated in Karnataka, is particularly noted for its fine herd of
spotted deer.

Q.88) Which one of the following cities is not located on the bank of river Ganga?
[A] Fatehpur
[B] Bhagalpur
[C] Uttarkashi
[D] Kanpur

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Uttarkashi city is not located on the bank of river Ganga. Uttarkashi is situated on the
banks of river Bhagirathi at an altitude of 1158 m above sea level. Uttarkashi is generally known as a
holy town close to Rishikesh.

Q.89) Nasik is located on the bank of which river?

[A] Mahanadi
[B] Tapti
[C] Krishna
[D] Godavari

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Godavari originates from Brahmagiri Mountain, Trimbakeshwar in Nashik and flows
through the city. Other towns located on the banks of river Godavari are Adilabad, Nanded, Basara
and Trimbakeshwar.
Q.90) Which of the following state receives rainfall due to western disturbances?
[A] Punjab
[B] West Bengal
[C] Kerala
[D] Gujarat

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Punjab receives rainfall due to western disturbances. Western disturbances are extra
tropical storms that originate over Mediterranean and flows toward east. In India western disturbances
bring winter rainfall in states like Punjab, Haryanana and western Uttar Pradesh.

Q.91) Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of Black soil ?

[A] It is best soil for cotton cultivation
[B] It has low water retaining capacity
[C] It is rich in iron, lime and magnesium
[D] The texture is clayey

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Black soil has high moisture holding capacity (150-250 mm/m), yet water is not
available to plants because it is strongly held by the smectitic clay. Black soils are extremely sticky
when wet. Hence, it has low water retaining capacity .

Q.92) Which of the following soils is very hard to cultivate?

[A] Alluvial
[B] Black
[C] Red
[D] Sandy

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sandy soils is very hard to cultivate. The soil feels gritty between your fingers, your
soil is sandy. When rolled in the hand to make a sausage shape, it crumbles and falls apart and won‘t
hold its shape. Water drains away quickly, though sandy soils can develop a hard pan that impedes
drainage.

Q.93) The total number of refinery working in Assam is/are

[A] One
[B] Two
[C] Three
[D] Four

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Digboi Refinery in 1901, Noonmati in Guwahati in 1962, Dhaligaon near Bongaigaon,
1962 Numaligarh, Golaghat district 1999.

Q.94) The National highways system is the responsibility of

[A] State Governments
[B] Central Government
[C] A special Roads Authority
[D] State and Central Government

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The National highways system is the responsibility of Central Government. Under the
National Highways Act, 1956, National Highways became the responsibility of the central
government.
Q.95) The Indian State with lowest density of population, according to 2011 census ?
[A] Arunachal Pradesh
[B] Himachal Pradesh
[C] Manipur
[D] Nagaland

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density with 17 persons per sq.km,
whereas our national capital has the highest population density with 11,320 persons per sq.km. The
Census of India 2011 was organized in two stages as trails House listing and Housing Census and
Population Enumeration.

Q.96) in West Bengal the region north of the Ganga is known as

[A] Tanr
[B] Bhabar
[C] Barind
[D] Rarh

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Barind, also called Barind Tract, geographic region in parts of northwestern
Bangladesh and north-central West Bengal state, India.

Q.97) Of the Indian States, West Bengal has the longest boundary with
[A] Jharkhand
[B] Bihar
[C] Orissa
[D] Assam

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Of the Indian States, West Bengal has the longest boundary with Jharkhand.

Q.98) Which district of West Bengal has achieved the highest level of Human Development Index in
the State ?
[A] Kolkata
[B] Purba Medinipur
[C] Burdhaman
[D] North 24 Parganas

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kolkata has achieved the highest level of Human Development Index in the State.

Q.99) Literacy rate in West Bengal census 2011

[A] 97%
[B] 70%
[C] 80%
[D] 77%

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: West Bengal's literacy rate has witnessed aloft tendency and it was 76.26 % as per
Census 2011. The male literacy rate was 81.69 % however the female literacy was 66.57 %.
Q.100) Which one is not a Tidal river ?
[A] Icchamati
[B] Vidyadhari
[C] Kalindi
[D] Jalangi

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Jalangi River, is a branch of the Ganges river in Murshidabad and Nadia districts in
the Indian state of West Bengal.

Q.101) Nucleus plays a central role in

[A] digestion
[B] cellular reproduction
[C] respiration
[D] All of these

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Nucleus has double layered covering called nuclear membrane, which has pores to
transfer the materials from inside the nucleus to outside. It contains chromosomes which in turn are
composed of DNA and protein. DNA is hereditary factor that transfer information from one
generation to next, it also contains the information necessary for constructing and organising cells.

Q.102) Bone is
[A] muscular
[B] connective
[C] striated
[D] fibrous

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Bone is a connective tissue containing cells, fibers and ground substance. There are
many functions in the body in which the bone participates, such as storing minerals, providing internal
support, protecting vital organs, enabling movement, and providing attachment sites for muscles and
tendons.

Q.103) The digestive juice which has no enzyme is

[A] Bile
[B] Salive
[C] Intestinal juice
[D] Gastric juice

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Bile juice contains no digestive enzymes, yet it is important for digestion.

Q.104) Blood has which circulate around the body and helps in clotting in case of injury.
[A] RBCs
[B] WBCs
[C] platelets
[D] eosinophils

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Platelets (a type of blood cell) and proteins in your plasma (the liquid part of blood)
work together to stop the bleeding by forming a clot over the injury.

Q.105) A vitamin requires cobalt for its activity. The vitamin is

[A] B12
[B] D
[C] B2
[D] A

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Vitamin B12 consists of a class of chemically related compounds (vitamers), all of
which have vitamin activity. It contains the biochemically rare element cobalt.

Q.106) _________ helps in the regulation of blood volume and blood pressure
[A] Iron
[B] Iodine
[C] Sodium
[D] Phosphorous

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Potassium and sodium are electrolytes that help your body maintain fluid and blood
volume so it can function normally. However, consuming too little potassium and too much sodium
can raise your blood pressure.

Q.107) Example of dioecious plant is

[A] papaya
[B] coconut
[C] cucurbits
[D] Chara

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Monoecious plants have separate male and female flowers on the same plant. To start, a
couple of definitions: Dioecious plants are either male or female. chara is monoecious because of it
contain both male and female organ .

Q.108) Which of the following set is the pyrimidines present in RNA?

[A] Uracil and Cytosine
[B] Adenine and Uracil
[C] Guanin and Uracil
[D] Thymine and Uracil

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Uracil and Cytosine. Pyrimidine is one of two classes of
heterocyclic nitrogenous bases found in the nucleic acids DNA and RNA. In RNA the pyrimidines are
uracil and cytosine.

Q.109) Urge to urinate is under the control of

[A] kidney
[B] nervous system
[C] ureter
[D] pressure

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Removal of urine from the body is the natural phenomenon. A person feels the pressure
in his/her lower abdomen when he/she hold the urine. It is nothing but the effect of nervous system
which control and hold the urine. It allows your bladder to keep filling and tells you when you need to
urinate
In order to hold urine, the lower urinary tract and nervous system must work properly. It is the
part of brain (cerebral cortex) rot the kidney that helps prevent bladrer muscle contractions.
Q.110) A micron is equal to
[A] 0.1mm
[B] 001 mm
[C] 0.001 mm
[D] 0.0001 mm

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 1 micron=10-6 m
1m=103 mm
:. 10-6 m (or 1 micron) =103 x 10-6 =10-3 mm or 0.001 mm

Q.111) In a pressure cooker, cooking is faster, because the increase in vapour pressure
[A] increases the specific heat
[B] decreases the specific heat
[C] decreases the boding point
[D] increases the boiling point

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: As boiling point of a liquid increases with increase in vapour pressure as explained
above, the liquid in the food boils at a higher temperature. This higher temperature steam transfers
greater thermal energy to the food and helps it to cook faster and better.

Q.112) A motor vehicle is moving around a circle with a uniform speed. The net acceleration of
the vehicle is
[A] zero
[B] towards the centre of the circle
[C] away from the centre along the radius of the circle
[D] perpendicular to the radius and along the velocity

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: If a body is moving around a circle, even if it is moving at a constant speed, it is
accelerating. This is because it is changing direction (it is not moving in a straight line). The direction
of this acceleration is towards the centre and the magnitude is given by a= v2/ r, where v is the speed
and (is the radius of the circle

Q.113) Energy that is produced commercially from coal is called

[A] light energy
[B] kinetic energy
[C] thermal energy
[D] potential energy

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Energy that is produced commercially from coal is called thermal energy

Q.114) The height of a geostationary satellite from the Earth’s surface is approximately
[A] 36,000 km
[B] 42,000 km
[C] 30,000 km
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A satellite in such an orbit is at an altitude of approximately 35,786 km (22,236 mi)
above mean sea level. It maintains the same position relative to the Earth's surface.
Q.115) Rays of light get refracted while passing from air to glass, because
[A] density of glass is higher than that of air
[B] they cannot be reflected from a glass surface
[C] glass absorbs energy from the light rays
[D] speed of light in glass is less than the speed of light in air

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: This slowing down of the ray of light also causes the ray of light to change direction. It
is the change in the speed of the light that causes refraction.

Q.116) Large amplitude of sound vibrations will produce

[A] Feeble sound
[B] Shrill sound
[C] Loud sound
[D] Gruff sound

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The large amplitude of sound vibrations will produce a loud sound. The intensity of
sound is identified by loudness. The loudness of sound is proportional to the square of the amplitude
of the vibration producing the sound. If the amplitude of vibration is large, the sound produced is
loud.

Q.117) If two stationary point charges of equal magnitude and of opposite sign are kept apart at
a small distance then such arrangement is called
[A] electric dipole
[B] uniform electric field
[C] Both a and b
[D] Neither a nor b

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Two equal and oppositely charged particles are kept at some distance apart from ...
between the particles and concentric with their mid-point is considered. Then: A ... In the given
question because equal and opposite charges are taken so it can ... field will be normal at two
points which lies on the axial position of the dipole.

Q.118) Curie is unit of

[A] radioactivity
[B] temperature
[C] heat
[D] energy

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: One of three units used to measure the intensity of radioactivity in a sample of
material. This value refers to the amount of ionizing radiation released when an element (such as
uranium) spontaneously emits energy as a result of the radioactive decay (or disintegration) of an
unstable atom.

Q.119) Which among the following is not a base?

[A] NaOH
[B] KoH
[C] NH4OH
[D] C2H5OH

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: ethyl alcohol ( C2H5OH ) contains both H and OH groups,yet it is
neither acidic nor basic.

Q.120) Sodium hydroxide is produced on a large scale

[A] by the hydrolysis of Na2CO3
[B] by the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of NaCl using a mercury cathode cell
[C] by adding water to sodium oxide
[D] by reacting sodium with water

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sodium hydroxide is produced on a large scale by the electrolysis of an aqueous
solution of NaCl using a mercury cathode cell

Q.121) Ethane with the molecular formula C2H6 has

[A] 6 covalent bonds
[B] 7 covalent bonds
[C] 8 covalent bonds
[D] 9 covalent bonds

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ethane, C2H6 is a straight chain saturated hydrocarbon. So, all the carbon atoms are
arranged in the form of a straight chain such that they are bound to one another by single covalent
bond.

C2H6 contains 7 covalent bonds.

Q.122) The molecule which has covalent bond is

[A] CsCl
[B] CaO
[C] N2
[D] Na20

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Nitrogen is in group 5 of the periodic table. three covalent bonds and make a nitrogen
molecule (N2). This is a picture of a nitrogen molecule. each nitrogen atom can count 8 electrons in its
outer shell.

Q.123) Which one of the following materials is suitable for water purification?
[A] Silicones
[B] Zeolites
[C] Asbestos
[D] Quartz

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Zeolites materials is suitable for water purification.
Q.124) Which of the following properties does not match to the element of halogen family?
[A] They have seven electrons in their valence shells
[B] They are diatomic in their molecular form
[C] They are chemically highly reactive
[D] They are metallic in nature

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Halogens have ns2p5 configuration so they have 7 valence shell electrons.
As they have 7 valence electron so they have a high tendency to gain one electron and are non-metallic.
Due to incomplete octet, they are highly reactive and exists as diatomic in molecular form as X2.

Q.125) Which one of the following reducing agents can also act as an oxidising agent?
[A] H2
[B] H2S
[C] S02
[D] Hl

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: There are certain substances which behave like an oxidising agent as well as a reducing
agent.
e.g., The compounds like H2S, S02, HNO2, etc are used as both oxidising agent as well as a reducing
agent.
SO2 can act as a reducing agent as well as an oxidising agent it reduces ferric sulphate to ferrous
sulphate.
Fe2 (S04)3+ SO2 + 2H2 O -----------> 2 FeSO4 + 2H2S04
It also oxidises H2S to s.
2H2S+S02 ------------> 2H20+3S

Q.126) The first constitutional amendment act was passed in:

[A] 1950
[B] 1951
[C] 1952
[D] 1953

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The First Amendment of Constitution of India was enacted in 1951. It made several
changes to Fundamental Rights provisions of constitution. The first schedule of constitution was also
added by the 1st amendment act 1951.

Q.127) Which Article of the Indian Constitution defines the duties of the Chief Minister?
[A] Article 163
[B] Article 166
[C] Article 167
[D] Article 164

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Article 167 of the Indian Constitution deals with the duties of Chief Minister as
respects the furnishing of information to Governor, etc.
Q.128) Which schedule to the Constitution of India carries the form of oath or affirmation for the
Prime Minister of India?
[A] Second
[B] Third
[C] Fourth
[D] Fifth

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The third Schedule contains the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations. The fourth Schedule
contains provisions as to the allocation of seats in the Council of States

Q.129) Panchayati Raj system in India is based on which principle?

[A] Centralisation
[B] Decentralisation
[C] Communist
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Panchayati Raj is an important feature of Indian polity ensuring direct participation of
common people [Article 243 G — 243 H] in decision making. Panchayati Raj structure is based on
principle of Decentralisation.

Q.130) What is the maximum strength of a legislative assembly in India as prescribed by

Constitution?
[A] 300
[B]400
[C] 500
[D] 600

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Constitution of India states that a State Legislative Assembly must have no less
than 60 and no more than 500 members however an exception may be granted via an Act of
Parliament as is the case in the states of Goa, Sikkim, Mizoram and the union territory of Puducherry
which have fewer than 60 members.

Q.131) Which one of following statements about the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is correct?
[A] He appoints Chief Justice of all High Courts
[B] The CJI can hold his office till he/she attains the age of 65 years.
[C] The CJI cannot become a member of parliament after the retirement.
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Judges in a High Court are appointed by the president of India in consultation with the
Chief Justice of India and governor of the state. The Constitution confers power of appointment Of
judges on the President of India. The CJI can become a member of parliament after the retirement.
The CJI can hold his office till he attains the age of 65 years.
Q.132) Consider the following statements about Article 23
(1) Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of
forced labour.
(2) This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
Which of the above statement's is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar
forms of forced labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in
accordance with law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual
not only against the State but also against private persons. Article 23 also provides for an exception to
this provision. It permits the State to impose compulsory service for public purposes, as for example,
military service or social service, for which it is not bound to pay.

Q.133) The authority to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights rests with
whom?
[A] All the courts in India
[B] The Parliament
[C] The Supreme Court
[D] The President of India

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The power of the High Court to issue a writ is much wider than that of the Supreme
Court. The High Court may grant a writ for the enforcement of fundamental rights or for any other
purpose such as violation of any statutory duties by a statutory authority.

Q.134) Safeguarding the public Property , developing scientific

temper and promoting communal harmony come under which of the following ?
[A] Fundamental rights
[B] DPSP
[C] Fundamental duties
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Safeguarding the public Property [Article 51A (i)]; developing scientific temper
[Article 51A (h)] and promoting communal harmony [Article 51A (e)].

Q.135) According to Indian Constitution ,the vacancy in the office of the President of India
shall be filled with in
[A] 1 month
[B] 3 months
[C] 6 months
[D] 1 year

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: But an election to fill the vacancy in office of President occuring due to his death,
resignation or impeachment or otherwise, shall be held within 6 months from the date of occurance
of such vacancy.

Q.136) Initially, for how long presidential rule can be imposed in a state?
[A] 6 months
[B] 9 months
[C] 12 months
[D] 15 months

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: If the president is satisfied on receipt of a report from the governor or otherwise that a
situation has arisen in which the Government in a state cannot be carried in accordance with the
provisions of the Constitution, he / she is empowered to proclaim an emergency. The proclamation
would have to be approved by the Houses of the parliament in same manner as in case of a War
Emergency. However, even if Parliament has approved the proclamation, it will normally cease to
operate 6 months after the Parliamentary approval. The proclamation can be repeated if necessary so
as to allow the period of emergency to continue for maximum of one year. Every such resolution
approving the emergency has to be passed by each of the houses of Parliament by a majority of not
less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.

Q.137) Who among the following held the office of Vice President of India for two consecutive
terms?
[A] Dr. R Venkatramanan
[B] Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
[C] Dr. VV Giri
[D] Dr. S Radhakrishnan

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the first person who held the office of Vice President
of India for two consecutive terms from 1952 to 1962. He was elected as Vice President of India in
1952 and 1957.

Q.138) Which of the following has the objective to establish welfare state?
[A] Fundamental Rights
[B] Directive Principles of State Policy
[C] Preamble of Constitution
[D] Fundamental Duties

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The directive principles of state policy contained in Articles 36-51 under Part IV of
Indian constitution, lays down contours of welfare state. For example, Article 38 (a) provides that
state shall strive to promote welfare of people by securing & protecting a social order based on social,
economic & political justice.

Q.139) Which of the following is not a method to calculate the Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
[A] Product method
[B] Income law
[C] Expenditure method
[D] Diminishing cost method

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: There are 3 methods used for calculating national income namely; Income method,
expenditure method, and Product method. The diminishing cost method is not a method to calculate
national income.

Q.140) Among Indian Economists who had done pioneering work on National Income?
[A] P.N. Dhar
[B] Prof. Shenoi
[C] VKRV Rao
[D] Jagdish Bhagwati
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The first person to adopt a scientific procedure in estimating the National Income was
Dr VKRV Rao in 1931.
PN Dhar- He was an Economist and Head of Indira Gandhi‘s Secretariat. Jagdish Bhagwati- An
Indian Economist. He is University Professor of Economics and Law at Columbia University.

Q.141) Who compared the inflation with the robbers?

[A] Professor Keynes
[B] Professor Jagdish Bhagwati
[C] Professor Brahmand and Wakeel
[D] Amartya Sen and JK Mehta

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Professor Brahmanand and Wakeel have compared the inflation to robbers.

Q.142) Which of the following is an effect of inflation?

[A] Erosion in purchasing power
[B] Affects relative price of goods
[C] Increase in inequalities of income
[D] All the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: As a result of inflation, some sections like producers or big landlords gain due to
the ownership of assets, income inequality increases.

Q.143) Which of the following is a subsidiary of SBI?

[A] State Bank of Hyderabad
[B] State Bank of Mysore
[C] State Bank of Patiala
[D] All the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: SBI has 5 subsidiaries now. The other 2 are State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur and
State Bank of Travancore.

Q.144) Which one of the following Five Year Plans of Indian Economy was terminated by the Janata
Government?
[A] Fourth Five Year Plan
[B] Fifth Five Year Plan
[C] Seventh Five Year Plan
[D] Eighth Five Year Plan

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Fifth Five Year Plan was launched and planned for the period of 1974-79 but Janata
Government came in power in 1978 and terminated the plan prematurely in 1978. The Janata
Government launched Sixth Five Year Plan for period 1978-1983. Congress Government when came
in power in 1980 abandoned the Sixth Five Year Plan and launched a new Sixth Year Plan for period
1980-1985.
Q.145) Which of the following statements on N.K SinghCommittee recommendations are
correct?
1. Revenue deficit target of 0.8% by 2023.
2. Fiscal policy anchor should be public debt to GDP ratio.
3. Target of fiscal deficit of 3.5% by 2023.
Select the correct code
[A] All correct
[B] 1 and 2 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: N.ksingh committee report recommended to reduce the fiscal deficit from 3.5
percent in 2017 to 2.5 percent by 2023.

Q.146) Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (S
A R F A E S I) Act passed in the year
[A] 1992
[B] 2005
[C] 2002
[D] 2000

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security
Interest Act, 2002. The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of
Securities Interest Act, 2002 (also known as the SARFAESI Act) is an Indian law.

Q.147) Which one of the following is an example of derivative?

[A] Warrants
[B] Swaptions
[C] Baskets
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A derivative is an instrument whose value is derived from the value of one or more
underlying, which can be commodities, precious metals, currency, bonds, stocks, stocks indices, etc.
Four most common examples of derivative instruments are Forwards, Futures, Options and Swaps

Q.148) Consider the following statements about Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
1. Its members are appointed by the President on the recommendations of the
Central Government.
2. Its core mandate is to fix the benchmark policy interest rate to contain inflation within
the target level.
3. It is headed by the Governor of RBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: It is a 6 member body.3 members are nominated by the central government and 3
are from the RBI. It sets the policy rate to keep inflation within the band decided by the
central government
Q.149) The importance of agriculture in Indian Economy is indicated by its contribution to which of
the following?
[A] National Income and Employment
[B] Industrial Development and International Trade
[C] Supply of Food Grains
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The importance of Agriculture in Indian Economy is indicated by its contribution to
national income, industrial development and supply of food grains. It contributes around 13.7% to
GDP supplies raw material for development of industries along with supplying food grains for
livelihood.

Q.150) Which of the following institutions is not part of the World Bank community?
[A] IBRD
[B] WTO
[C] IDA
[D] IFC

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: WTO or World Trade Organisation is not part of the World Bank community. World
Bank Group is comprised of the five institutions i.e. International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD), the International Development Association (IDA), the International Finance
Corporation (IFC), the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) and the International
Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID).

Q.151) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on
one side of (: :) and one word is given on another side (: :) while another word is to be found from the
given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the word of the given pair bear. Choose
the correct alternative.
Annihilation : Fire : : Cataclysm : ?

[A] Earthquake
[B] Steam
[C] Emergency
[D] Disaster

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: As, 'Fire' can lead to 'Annihilation' similarly 'Earthquake' can lead to 'Cataclysm'.

Q.152) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on
one side of (: :) and one word is given on another side (: :) while another word is to be found from the
given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the word of the given pair bear. Choose
the correct alternative.
Smoke : Pollution :: War : ?

[A] Peace
[B] Victory
[C] Treaty
[D] Destruction

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Second is result of the first.
Q.153) In each of the following questions, certain pairs of words are given, out of which the words in
all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the odd pair.
[A] Onomatology : Name
[B] Nidology : Nests
[C] Psychology : Algae
[D] Concology : Shells

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In all pairs except (d), first is known as the study of second.

Q.154) In each of the following questions, certain pairs of words are given, out of which the words in
all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the odd pair.
[A] S
[B]M
[C]Q
[D] U

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: All others are made of curved lines.

Q.155) A man introduced himself to a lady as the grandson of his mother's brother's sister. How is the
man related to the lady?
[A] sister
[B] daughter
[C] niece
[D] cousin

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: cousin

Q.156) Pointing to a photograph, a lady said, "he is the brother of my husband's father's son". How is
the man related to the lady?
[A] brother-in-law
[B] brother
[C] uncle
[D] nephew

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: brother-in-law

Q.157) Kamu walks 5 kms straight from her house towards west then turns right and walks 3 kms.
There-after she takes left turn and walks 2 km. Further, she turns left and walks 3 km. Finally, she
turns right and walks 3 kms. In what direction she is now from her house?
[A] West
[B] North
[C] South
[D] East

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: It is clear from the diagram that Kamu is to the west of her house.
Hence required answer will be west direction.
Q.158) Among five boys, Vasant is taller than Manohar but not as tall as Raju. Jayant is taller than
Dutta But shorter than Manohar. Who is the tallest in the group?
[A] Raju
[B] Manohar
[C] Vasant
[D] Cannot be determined

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: According to given question,
Vasant is taller than Manohar but not as tall as Raju.
V > M But R > V.
Jayant is taller than Dutta But shorter than Manohar.
J > D But M > J.
So V > M and M > J
Then V > M > J
R > V and J > D
Then R > V > M > J >D
Descending order of the heights is as
Raju > Vasant > Manohar > Jayant > Dutta
Hence, Raju is the tallest.

Q.159) Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
4+8 × 12÷ 6-4=8
[A] ×and +
[B] + and ÷
[C] - and +
[D] ÷and -

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In the given question 4+8× 12 ÷ 6-4=8
When we interchange the sign + and ’ 4 ’ 8×12 +6−4 = 8
Equation is satisfactory.

Q.160) Which number will replace the question mark(?) in the following series?
7,10, 16, 19, 25, ??
[A] 29
[B]33
[C]31
[D] 28

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In the given question 7,10, 16, 19, 25, ??
There is a gap of 3 and 6 in the alternate integer.
10-7=3 16-10=6 19-16=3 25-19=6 ??-25=3
Option D is satisfying the condition. 28-25=3
Q.161) Six friends, C, E, G, I K and M, are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre
and at equal distance from each other (not necessarily in the same order). E is second to the right of C,
K is to the immediate right of G. G and I are facing towards each other. Moving towards the left of I,
how many friends are sitting between I and M?
[A]0
[B]1
[C]3
[D] 2

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: As per given data, following circular sitting arrangement is obtained:

Hence, going towards the left of I, there are a total of three persons between I and M (namely C, K
and G).

Q.162) Five persons, F, J, N, R and V, are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre
(not necessarily in the same order). J is to the immediate left of F. N is second to the left to F, V is
second to the left of J. Who is sitting second to the right of J?
[A]M
[B]F
[C]V
[D] R

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: As per given data, following circular sitting arrangement is obtained:

Hence, R is sitting second to the right of J.

Q.163) Five books labelled B, G, N, P and T are kept one above the other(Not necessarily in the same
order). Only one book is kept between N and G. B is just above P. B is above N. G is not above N.
Which book is at the top?
[A]G
[B]P
[C]B
[D] T

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Correct order of books is:- Top - B - P - N - T - G – Bottom
Book B is at the top.
Q.164) Which response represents language, English, Hindi?
[A]

[B]

[C]

[D]

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: According to above given question , we know that
English and Hindi are two different languages.English is different from Hindi .
Therefore , option ( A ) will be required answer . As shown in venn - diagram .

Q.165) Which answer figure contains the question figure?

[A]1
[B]2
[C]3
[D] 4

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Q.166) Ravi and Kavi start a business by investing ₹ 8000 and ₹ 72000, respectively. Find the ratio
of their profits at the end of year.
[A] 2 : 9
[B] 5 : 9
[C] 7 : 9
[D] 1 : 9

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Ratio of profit = Ratio of investments
= 8000 : 72000 = 1 : 9

Q.167) Rohan and Sunil separately can complete a work in 8 hours and 4 hours respectively. How
much time will they take when working together ?
[A] 22/3
[B] 11/3
[C] 3 hours
[D] 2 hours

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Required time taken to complete the work by both together = x y / x + y
(Here x = 8 and y = 4)
∴ Required time = (8 x 4)/(8 + 4) = 32/12 = 22/3 hours

Q.168) A and B are two towns. Mr. Faruqui covers the distance from A to B on cycle at 16 km/hr.
however, he cover the distance from B to A on foot at 9 km/hr. his average speed during the whole
journey is ?
[A] 12.5 km/hr.
[B] 10.25 km/hr.
[C] 11.52 km/hr.
[D] 12.32 km/hr.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Average Speed = Total distance / time
= 2d / [( d / 16) + ( d / 9)]
= ( 2 x 16 x 9 ) / ( 16 + 9 ).
= 11.52 km/hr.

Shortcut :

Average speed = 2uv / (u + v)

= ( 2 x 16 x 9 ) / ( 16 + 9 )
= 11.52

Q.169) Out of the ratio 7 : 15, 15 : 23, 17 : 25 and 21 : 29 the smallest one is ?
[A] 17 : 25
[B] 7 : 15
[C] 15 : 23
[D] 21 : 29
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: 7 : 5 = 7/15 = 0.466
15 : 23 = 15/23 = 0.652
17 : 25 = 17/25 = 0.68
and 21 : 29 = 0.724
∴ The smallest one is 7 : 15.

Q.170) 30% of 140 = ?% of 840 ?

[A] 5
[B] 15
[C] 24
[D] 60

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Let y% of 840 = 30% of 140
⇒ (y/100) x 840 = (30/100) x 140
∴ y = (30 x 140 x 100) / (100 x 840 ) = 5

Q.171) Abhinav save Rs. 25 by getting 6.66% discount on a textbook. What is the amount of money
(in Rs.) paid by him ?
[A] 450
[B] 350
[C] 225
[D] 375

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 6.66% of MP = 25
⇒ MP = 375
∴ SP = MP - 25 = 350

Q.172) The simple interest at R% for R years will be Rs. R on a sum of ?

[A] Rs. R
[B] Rs. 100R
[C] Rs. .(100/R)
[D] Rs. (100/R2)

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sum = (100 x SI) / (R x T)
= (100 x R) / (R x R)
= Rs. 100/R

Q.173) Rohit earns an interest of ₹ 1656 for the third year and ₹ 1440 for the second year on the
same sum. Find the rate of interest if it is lent at compound interest ?
[A] 18%
[B] 12%
[C] 15%
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Interest on ₹ 1440 = ₹ 216 for the third year
⇒ Rate percentage = (216 x 100)/(1440 x 1) = 15 %
Q.174) Which of the following is in descending order ?
[A] 3/5, 5/7, 7/9
[B] 7/9, 5/7, 3/5
[C] 5/7, 7/9, 3/5
[D] 7/9, 3/5, 5/7

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: 7/9, 5/7, 3/5

Q.175) The number of prime numbers between 0 and 50 is

[A] 13
[B]14
[C]15
[D] 16

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: prime numbers between 0 and 50 are 2 3 5 7 11 13 17 19 23 29 31 37 41 43 and 47
∴ required number of prime number is 15

Q.176) Which country recently (in Sept‘ 21) signed the ‗Terms of Reference‘ with the Indian Navy to
conduct first of its kind Navy to Navy talks?
[A] Japan
[B] Australia
[C] France
[D] UK

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Indian Navy signed the ‗Terms of Reference‘ (ToR) with the Royal
Australian Navy to conduct Navy to Navy (N2N) talks under the framework of the ‘Joint
Guidance for the India – Australia Navy to Navy Relationship’ document signed by the
Navies.
About Australia:
PM – Scott Morrison
Capital – Canberra

Q.177) Name the Ministry that organised the ‗VAYO NAMAN‘ Programme to honour the Senior
Citizens on the occasion of ‗International Day of Older Persons‘ (on 1st October).
[A] Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
[B] Ministry of Law and Justice
[C] Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
[D] Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: On the occasion of the ‗International Day of Older Persons‘ 2021, the Ministry of
Social Justice and Empowerment organised ‗VAYO NAMAN’ Programme, to honour the Senior
Citizens. Venkaiah Naidu, Vice President of India presented the ‗Vayoshreshtha Samman award
2021’(National Award for Senior Citizens).

Q.178) Annually 22,000 girls die due to child marriage as per the ―Global Girlhood Report 2021:
Girls‘ Rights in Crisis‖ which was released by ___________ .
[A] UNICEF
[B] Save the Children
[C] ECPAT International
[D] World Vision
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Child marriage annually kills 22,000 (10% in South Asia) girl child as per the
―Global Girlhood Report 2021: Girls’ Rights in Crisis‖ report released by Save the
Children International on the ‗International Day of the Girl Child‘ (11th October).

Q.179) Who won 2021‘s ‗UNHCR Nansen Refugee Award‘?

[A] Hellenic Rescue Team (HRT)
[B] Jeel Albena Association for Humanitarian Development (JAAHD)
[C] Galkayo Education Centre for Peace and Development (GECPD)
[D] Society for Humanitarian Solidarity

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Jeel Albena Association for Humanitarian Development (JAAHD), a Yemeni
humanitarian organization, was declared the winner of the 2021 United Nations High
Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) Nansen Refugee Award.
i. Ameen Jubran, Founder of Jeel Albena, received the award on behalf of Jeel Albena.
Q.180) Name the Person who won ‘2021 Nobel Prize’ in Chemistry along with British chemist
‘David W.C. MacMillan’ for the development of ‘Asymmetric Organocatalysis’.
[A] Dorothy Crowfoot Hodgkin
[B] Jennifer A. Doudna
[C] Linus Pauling
[D] Benjamin List

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences awarded the 2021 Nobel
Prize in Chemistry to German chemist Benjamin List and British chemist David W.C.
MacMillan for the development of a precise new and ingenious tool for molecular
construction: asymmetric organocatalysis.
Q.181) India was ranked______ in the ‘World Justice Project’s Rule of Law Index 2021 report’,
where _______ was positioned at the top spot.

[A] 130th; Denmark

[B] 79th; Denmark
[C] 130th; Norway
[D] 79th; Norway

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: India was ranked 79th out of 139 countries and jurisdictions in the World
Justice Project‘s (WJP) Rule of Law Index 2021 report, where Pakistan was positioned 130
with a poor score and the last spot was occupied by Venezuela.
The top 3 positions were held by Denmark, followed by Norway & Finland.

Q.182) Which Organization recently (in Oct‘ 21) announced to lease the satellite named ‗GSAT-24‘
to Tata Sky for DTH applications?
[A] ISRO Inertial Systems Unit
[B] National Remote Sensing Centre
[C] Space Applications Centre
[D] New Space India Limited

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Indian Space Research Organisation‘s (ISRO) commercial arm, New Space
India Limited (NSIL) announced its first ‗demand-driven‘ communication satellite named
‗GSAT-24‘ to Tata Sky for meeting their DTH application needs.
About New Space India Limited:
Founded: 6 March 2019 Headquarters: Bengaluru, Karnataka CMD: G Narayanan

Q.183) Which organisation recently (in Oct‘21) withdrew from the ‗2022 Birmingham
Commonwealth Games‘ due to Covid concern?
[A] Badminton Association of India
[B] Board of Control for Cricket in India
[C] All India Chess Federation
[D] Hockey India

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hockey India withdrew from the 2022 Birmingham Commonwealth
Games citing Covid-19 concerns and UK‘s discriminatory quarantine rules for travellers from
India.
About Hockey India:
President: Gyanendro Ningombam
Headquarters: New Delhi, India

Q.184) Who authored the book titled ‗Kathmandu Dilemma: Resetting India-Nepal Ties‘?
[A] Ranjit Rae
[B] Jayant N Khobragade
[C] Mohamed Abu Al-Kheir
[D] K S Vijayanath

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Ranjit Rae, former Indian ambassador to Nepal, authored his first book titled
‗Kathmandu Dilemma: Resetting India-Nepal Ties’ which portrays the relations between India and
Nepal from the perspective of India.

Q.185) In October 2021, Abolhassan Banisadr passed away. He was the 1st President of which
country?
[A] Azerbaijan
[B] Iran
[C] Armenia
[D] Turkmenistan

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Abolhassan Banisadr, who became Iran’s first President of Iran after the 1979
revolution, died.
About Iran:
President – Ebrahim Raisi
Supreme leader – Ali Khamenei

Q.186) When is the ‗World Vegetarian Day‘ annually observed across the globe?
[A] 30th September
[B] 1st October
[C] 2nd October
[D] 3rd October

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: World Vegetarian Day is annually celebrated across the globe on October 1st to
promote compassion and life-enhancing possibilities of vegetarianism. The World Vegetarian Day
initiates the month of October as the Vegetarian Awareness Month which concludes on 1st
November, World Vegan Day.
Q.187) What was the theme of ‗Wildlife Week‘ that is annually observed from October 2 to October
8 across India?
[A] Roar and Revive – Exploring Human-Animal Relationships
[B] Life Below Water: For People And Planet
[C] Big Cats
[D] Forests and Livelihoods: Sustaining People and Planet

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In India, Wildlife Week is annually observed from October 2 to October 8 across the
country with an aim to protect and preserve the flora and fauna of India. The 2021 Wildlife Week, the
67th edition, is being celebrated with the theme ‗Forests and Livelihoods: Sustaining People and
Planet’

Q.188) In October 2021, The Cyclonic Storm ‘Gulab’ re-emerged as__________ which
gradually strengthened while entering the Gulf of Oman.
[A] Cyclone Burevi
[B] Cyclone Nivar
[C] Cyclone Tauktae
[D] Cyclone Shaheen

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Cyclonic Storm Gulab, which started in the Bay of Bengal and affected the
Eastern coast of India (Odisha and Andhra Pradesh) re-emerged as Cyclone Shaheen, which
gradually strengthened as it entered the Gulf of Oman. The cyclone Shaheen affected parts of Oman
and Iran.

Q.189) Which City hosted the 9th International Tourism Mart for the North East Region (in Nov‘21)
for the 1st time?
[A] Aizawl, Mizoram
[B] Agartala, Tripura
[C] Kohima, Nagaland
[D] Imphal, Manipur

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Neiphiu Rio, Chief Minister of Nagaland & Ajay Bhatt, Minister of State(MoS)
for Tourism inaugurated the three-day long 9th International Tourism Mart for the
NorthEast Region at Kohima, Nagaland.
Nagaland is hosting this Mart for the first time.

Q.190) In December 2021,__________ granted Observer Status to International Solar Alliance (ISA),
a joint initiative of India & ______ launched in __________.
[A] UNGA; France; 2015
[B] World Bank; China; 2016
[C] UNGA; Russia; 2015
[D] ADB; China; 2016

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The UN General Assembly conferred Observer Status on the International
Solar Alliance in December based on the UNGA‘s Sixth Committee report.
i.The ISA was jointly launched by India & France in 2015 during the 21st session of the United
Nations Climate Change COP-21 to promote solar energy among countries.
ISA Headquarters in Gurugram, Haryana (India) & nearly 80 countries have signed and ratified the
ISA Framework.
Q.191) Which country assumed the Chairmanship of Council of Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure of
Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) for a 1 year term?
[A] Pakistan
[B] China
[C] India
[D] Russia

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: India assumed the Chairmanship of Council of Regional Anti-
Terrorist Structure of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (RATS SCO) for 1 year
from October 28, 2021.

 The seminar is the 1st event to be hosted by India during its Chairmanship of Council of
RATS SCO & In August 2019, India hosted the seminar held in Hyderabad and 2021 summit
denote the second time India has to host.

Q.192) Which word was selected as Merriam-Webster ‗Word of the Year‘ 2021?
[A] Virus
[B] Vaccine
[C] Lockdown
[D] Covid

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: ‘Vaccine’ is the word of the year 2021of Merriam-Webster, America‘s most trusted
online dictionary.
The terms vaccine & vaccination are derived from Variolae vaccinae (smallpox of the cow), the term
devised by Edward Jenner & he coined the word vaccine from the Latin word ‘vacca’ for cow.

Q.193) As per the World Cooperative Monitor Report 2021, which company ranked number 1 under
the category of Agriculture & food industries, based on the ratio of top 300 Turnover over the GDP
Per Capita?
[A] Chambal Fertilisers and Chemicals Ltd
[B] Rashtriya Chemicals & Fertilizers Ltd
[C] Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Ltd
[D] National Agricultural Cooperative Federation Ltd

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) has ranked number one
under the category of Agriculture and food industries, which based on the ratio of top 300
Turnover over the GDP Per Capita in the 2021 WCM report.
While the 2nd position was also held by an Indian company - Gujarat Cooperative Milk
Marketing Federation Ltd (Amul)
World’s 1st Nano Urea Introduced by IFFCO for the farmers across the World.

Q.194) Name the 1st survey Vessel project was launched (in Dec‘21) for the Indian Navy by Garden
Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) Limited in West Bengal.
[A] Nirdeshak
[B] Samudrakhoj
[C] Jalprahar
[D] Sandhayak

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sandhayak, the 1st of the four Survey Vessels (Large) Project being built for the
Indian Navy (IN) was launched in Hooghly River of Kolkata, West Bengal (WB) in the presence
of Minister of State (MoS) Ajay Bhatt, Ministry of Defence (MoD).
i. These Vessels have been designed and developed by Defence Public Sector Undertaking
(DPSU), Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) Limited on the concept of
‗Integrated Construction‘.
It was launched by Smt Pushpa Bhatt, spouse of Ajay Bhatt, by chanting invocation from Atharva
Veda. It is a Naval Maritime Tradition of launching new vessels.

Q.195) Who was recently (in Dec‘21) appointed as the ambassador for the 1st edition of the Saudi
Grand Prix?
[A] Max Mosley
[B] Alexander Wurz
[C] Lando Norris
[D] Reema Juffali

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Reema Juffali, has been appointed as an ambassador for the first edition of the
Saudi Grand Prix, under the Formula 1 (F1) World Championship
 Reema Juffali is the 1st Female F1 driver of Saudi Arabia.
About Federation Internationale de l’ Automobile (FIA):
President – Jean Todt
Headquarters – Paris, France

Q.196) In December 2021, Who launched the book, ‗The Midway Battle: Modi‘s Roller-coaster
Second Term‘ authored by Gautam Chintamani?
[A] Narendra Modi
[B] Ram Nath Kovind
[C] Amit Shah
[D] M. Venkaiah Naidu

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Vice President (VP) M. Venkaiah Naidu launched a book titled ‘The
Midway Battle: Modi’s Roller-coaster Second Term’ authored by Gautam Chintamani at
Upa-Rashtrapati Nivas, New Delhi.
i. It marks the second tenure of the current Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi.
The VP M Venkaiah Naidu launched ‘Public Service Ethics- A Quest for Naitik Bharat’ authored
by Prabhat Kumar, former Governor of Jharkhand & former Cabinet Secretary at Upa-Rashtrapati
Nivas, New Delhi.

Q.197) At Home In The Universe‘ is the autobiography of _________________ .

[A] Arundhati Roy
[B] Nadia Owusu
[C] B K Madhur
[D] Aravind Adiga

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: An autobiography titled ‘At Home In The Universe’ by Bala Krishna
Madhur was released by R.C. Sinha, IAS (Rtd), advisor to the Ministry of Road
Development in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
The book is the autobiography of B K Madhur, a former Chief Executive Officer at DHFL Property
Services Ltd, and one of the key personalities in establishing Dewan Housing.
Q.198) American author Martin J Sherwin passed away in December 2021. When did he receive
Pulitzer Prize for his Biography - ‗American Prometheus: The Triumph and Tragedy of J. Robert
Oppenheimer‘?
[A] 1995
[B] 2006
[C] 1999
[D] 2012

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Martin J Sherwin, an American scholar of atomic weapons passed away in
Washington, DC, The United States of America(USA). He was born in New York, USA.
He won the 2006 Pulitzer Prize in Biography with Kai Bird for the book ‗American Prometheus: The
Triumph and Tragedy of J. Robert Oppenheimer‘

Q.199) International Day for the Abolition of Slavery is observed across the globe by UN
on ________________.

[A] 1st December

[B] 30th November
[C] 2nd December
[D] 29th November

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The United Nations(UN)‘s International Day for the Abolition of Slavery is
annually observed across the globe on 2nd December to eradicate the contemporary forms of
slavery which includes, human trafficking, sexual exploitation, child labour, forced marriage,
and forced recruitment of children for use in armed conflict.
The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted the resolution A/RES/317(IV) on 2nd
December 1949.
Q.200) ____________ became the 1st Indian State to launch Banadhikar App, a GPS-based
mobile app for demarcating forest ‘patta’ for the landless indigenous people under the Forest
Rights Act,____________ .

[A] West Bengal; 2006

[B] Tripura; 2006
[C] Mizoram; 2006
[D] Mizoram; 2011

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Union Minister Giriraj Singh, Ministry of Rural Development virtually launched the
National Generic Document Registration System (NGDRS) and Banadhikar App at
the Tripura State Secretariat in Agartala.