BATCH : XII [BIOLOGY]

AIPMT - 2015

Date :– 6– 11 - 2015 Duration :3 Hours Max. Marks : 720

Name : ______________________________ Roll No. ___________________

Instructions to Candidates
GENERAL :
1. This paper contains 180 Qs. in all. All questinos are compulsory.
2. There is Negative Marking. Guessing of answer is harmful.
3. Write your Name & RollNo. in the space provided on this cover page of question paper.
4. The question paper contains blank space for your rough work. No additional sheet will
be provided for rough work.
5. The answer sheet, machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided
separately.
6. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so
by the invigilator.
7. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log tables, Slide Rule, Calculators, Cellular Phones, Pagers
and Electronic Gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination
hall.

MARKING SCHEME :
1. Each Question has four options, only one option is correct. For each incorrect
response, one fourth of the weightage marks allotted to the question world be
deducted.
2. In Biology : Q.1 to 90 carry 4 marks each,
In Physics : Q.1 to 45 carry 4 marks each,
In Chemistry : Q.1 to 45 carry 4 marks each,

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PART - I [BIOLOGY]
1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens used in Genetic 9. A g enet ically m anip ulat ed o rgan ism
engineering for :- containing in its genome one or more inserted
(1) DNA-mapping (2) DNA-modification gene of another species is called :-
(3) Vector (4) DNA finger printing (1) Transposon
(2) Gene expression
2. Biologically functional gene coding for tyrosine (3) Transgenic organism
tRNA of E.coil synthesized by Khorana in 1979 (4) Retroposons
had :-
(1) 333 nucleotide pairs 10. Th e tu mour ind using c apac ity of
(2) 312 nucleotide pairs Agrobacterium tumaefaciens is located in
(3) 77 nucleotide pairs large extrachromosomal plasmid and called
(4) 207 nucleotide pairs (1) Ti -plasmid (2) Ri -plamid
(3) Lambda phage (4) Plasmid PBR 322
3. Genetic engineering is :-
(1) Study of extra nuclear gene
11. Chimeric DNA is :-
(2) Manipulation of genes by artificial method
(1) DNA which contains uracil
(3) Manipulation of RNA
(2) DNA synthesized from RNA
(4) Manipulation of enzymes
(3) Recombinant DNA
(4) DNA which contains single strand
4. Polymerase chain reaction technology
(PCRtechnique) is used for :-
12. Genetic engineering aims at :-
(1) DNA identification
(1) Destroying wild gene
(2) DNA repair
(2) Preselving defective gene
(3) DNA amplification
(4) Cleave DNA (3) Curing human disease by introducing new
gene
5. Wh ich stru cture in volved in g enet ic (4) All the above
engineering :-
(1) Plastid (2) Plasmid 13. A piece of nucleic acid using to find out a
(3) Codon (4) None gene, by forming hybrid with it, is called as
(1) c - DNA (2) DNA probe
6. Which of the following is the example of (3) Sticky end (4) Blunt end
chemical scissors :-
(1) ECo -RI (2) Hind -III 14. Taq -po lyme rase which is us ed for
(3) Bam -I (4) All the above amplification of DNA related with :-
(1) Hybridoma technique
7. Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic (2) PCR-technique
engineering bacause :- (3) Gene cloning
(1) They can degrade harmful proteins (4) r-DNA technology
(2) They can join DNA fragments
(3) They can cut DNA at variable site 15. Plasmid has been used as vector because :-
(4) They can cut DNA at specific base sequences (1) It is circular DNA which have capacity to
join to eukeryotic DNA.
8. When the genotype of an organism is (2) [t can move between prokaryotic and
improved by the addition of foreign gene, the eukaryotic cells.
process is called (3) Both ends show replication.
(1) Tissue culture (2) Genetic diversity (4) It has antibiotic resistance gene.
(3) Genetic engineering (4) Plastic surgery

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16. What is true for plasmid :- 23. The basic procedure involved in the synthesis
(1) Plasmids are widely used in gene transfer of recombinant DNA molecule is depicted
(2) These are found in virus below. The mistake in the procedure is :-
(3) Plasmid contains gene for vital activities
(4) These are main part of chromosome

17. Which of the following cuts the DNA from

specific places :-
(1) Restriction endonuclease
(2) Ligase
(3) Exonuclease
(4) Alkaline phosphate

18. Restriction enzymes

(1) Are endonucleases which cleave DNA at
specific sites
(1) Enzyme polymerase is not included
(2) Make DNA complementary to an existing
(2) The mammalian DNA is shown double
DNA or RNA
(3) Cut or join DNA fragments stranded
(4) Are required in vectorless direct gene (3) Only one fragment is inserted
transfer. (4) Two different restriction enzymes are
used
19. Restriction endonucleases :- 24. Thermal cycle takes place in which technique
(1) Are synthesized by bacteria as part of (1) Gel electrophoresis
their defense mechanism (2) PCR-technique
(2) Are present in mammalian cells for (3) Centrifugation
degradation of DNA when the cell dies (4) Southern blotting
(3) Are used in genetic engineering for ligating
two DNA molecules 25. PCR- technique is used in :-
(4) Are used for invitro DNA synthesis (1) Production of transgenic microbes
(2) Production of genetically modified food
20. The Ti plasmid, is often used for making (3) Forensic investigation
transgenic plants. This plasmid is found in :-
(4) r-DNA technique
(1) Yeast as a 2 m plasmid
(2) Azotobacter
26. BACs and YACs are :-
(3) Rhizobium of the roots of leguminous
(1) Natural DNA obtained from bacteria and
plants
yeast
(4) Agrobacterium
(2) Useful vectors for eucaryotic gene transfer
(3) Artificial DNA obtained from bacteria and
21. Which of the following is the example of direct
yeast
gene transfer :-
(4) (2) & (3) both
(1) Microinjection (2) Electroporation
(3) Particle gun (4) All the above 27. Restriction enzymes are :-
(1) Not always required in genetic engineering
22. How many copies of DNA sample are produced (2) Essential tool in genetic engineering
in PCR technique after 6-cycle :- (3) Nucleases that cleave DNA at specific
(1) 4 (2) 32 sites
(3) 64 (4) 16 (4) (2) and (3) both

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28. Production of a human protein in bacteria by 33. A bacter 4m modifies its DNA by adding methyl
genetic engineering is possible because groups to the DNA, It does so to :-
(1) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA (1) Clone its DNA
splicing reactions (2) Be able to transcribe many genes
(2) The mechanism of gene regulation is simultaneously
identical in humans and bacteria (3) Turn its gene on
(3 ) The human chromosome can replicate in (4) Protect its DNA from its own restriction enzyme
bacterial cell
(4) The genetic code is universal 34. Two microbes found to be very useful in
genetic engineering are -
29. Electroporation procedure involves : (1) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium
(1) Fast passage of food through sieve pores tumefaciens
in phloem elements with the help of electric (2) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
stimulation. (3) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
(2) Opening of stomatal pores during night (4) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis
by artificiai light elegans
(3) Making transient pores in the cell 35. DNA ligase is an enzyme that catalyses the
membrane to introduce gene constructs (1) splitting of DNA, threads into small bits
(4) Purification of saline water with the help (2) joining of the fragments of DNA
of a membrane system (3) denaturation of DNA
(4) synthesis of DNA
30. Polyethylene glycol method is used for :- 36. Which one of the following is used as vector
(1) Energy production from sewage for cloning genes into higher orga nisms?
(2) Gene transfer without a vector (1) Rhizopus nigricans (2) Retrovirus
(3) Biodiesel production (3) Baculovirus
(4) Seedless fruit production (4) Salmonella typhimurium

37. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which:

31. Which is not correctly matched: (1) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA
(1) Agrobacterium  Ti-plasmid polymerase
(2) Cosmid  Vector DNA (2) remove nucleotides from the ends of the
(3) Rhizobium  Asymbiotic Nz-fixer DNA molecule
(3) make cuts at specific positions within the
(4) Albinism  Autosomal recessive gene
DNA molecule
32. Which o f th e fo llow ing rest rict ion (4) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence
endonuclease enzyme produce blunt end in DNA for binding of DNA ligase

38. Which one of the following palindromic base
(1) Bam HI G G A T C C
sec. quences in DNA can be easily cut at
CCTAGG
about the middle by some particular

restriction enzyme?

(1) 5' __ GAATTC ___ 3'
(2) ECORI GAATTC
3'___ CTTAAG ___ 5'
CTTAAG
(2) 5' ___ CACGTA ___ 3'
 3' ___ CTCAGT ___ 5'
 (3) 5' ___ CGTTCG ___ 3'
(3) Hae- III G G C C 3' ___ ATGGTA ___ 5'
CCGG (4) 5' ___ GATATG ___ 3'
 3' ___ CTACTA ___ 5'
(4) All the above
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39. More advancement in genetic engineering is 46. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA
due to :- polymerase used in PCR?
(1) Restriction endonuclease (1) It is isolated from a virus
(2) Reverse transcriptase (2) It remains active at high temperature
(3) Protease (4) Zymase (3) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in
recipient cells
40. There is a restriction endonuclease called
(4) It serves as a selectable marker
EcoRI. What does "co" part in it stand for?
(1) Colon (2) Coelom
47. For transformation, micro-particles coated
(3) Coenzyme (4) Coli
with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun
are made up of :-
41. What is true of plasmid?
(1) Silicon or Platinum (2) Gold or Tungsten
(1) Found in viruses
(3) Silver or platinum (4) Platinum or zinc
(2) Contains genes for vital activities
(3) Part of nuclear chromosome
48. The figure below is the diagrammatic
(4) Widely used in gene transfer
representation of the E.Coli vector pBR 322.
Which one of the given options correctly
42. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed
identifies its certain component(s)?
by temperature they are in order of :-
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis
(2) Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation
(3) Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation
(4) Denaturation, Synthesis, Annealing

43. The thermostable enzymes, Taq' and 'Pfu',

isolated from thermophilic bacteria are :-
(1) RNA polymerases
(2) DNA polymerasE's
(3) Restriction endonucleases
(4) DNA ligases
(1) Hind III, ECoRI-selectable markers
44. The term "molecular scissors" generally refers to (2) ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes
(1) DNA polymerases
(3) ori-original restriction enzyme
(2) RNA polymerases
(4) rop-reduced osmotic pressure
(3) Restriction endonucleases
(4) DNA ligases
49. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are
used :
45. If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for
(1) as sequences from where replication
ampicillin resistance if transferred into EColi
starts
cells and the host cells are spread on agar
plates containing ampicillin, then :- (2) to keep the cultures free of infection
(1) both transformed and untransformed (3) as selectabl markers
recipient cells will die (4) to select healthy vectors
(2) both transformed and untrasformed
recipient cell will be grow 50. The figure below shows three steps (A,B, C)
(3) trantsormed recipient cells will grow and of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select
untransformed recipient cells will die the option giving correct identification
(4) transformed recipient cells will die and together with what it represents?
untransformed recipient cell will grow Region to be amplified
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55. For a DNA to function as a cloning vector

the most essential requirement is
(1) multiple restriction sites
(2) several selectable markers
(3) circular nature
(4) 'ori' sequence

56. Genetically engineered bacteria have been

used in commercial production of
(1) Thyroxin (2) Testosterone
(3) Human insulin (4) Melatonium

57. The new strain of bacteria produced by

Options:
(1) C-Extension in the presence of heat stable biotechnology is
DNA polymerase (1) Escherichia coli
(2) A-Annealing with two sets of primers (2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) B-Denaturation at a temperature of about (3) Bacillus subtilis
98°C separating the two DNA strands (4) Pseudomonas putida
(4) A-Denaturation at a temperature of about
50°C 58. The name of drug used in can er treatment
produced by biotechnology is
51. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for: (1) Interferon
(1) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining (2) [HGH] Human growth hormone
with vectors (3)TSH
(2) DNA finger printing (4) Insulin
(3) Disarming pathogen vectors
(4) Transformation of plants cells 59. The prerequisites for biotechnological
production of antibiotics is
52. The res tric tion enz yme(s) u sed in (1) To search an antibiotic producing
recombinant DNA technology making microorganism
staggered cuts in DNA leaving sticky ends (2) To isolate the antibiotic gene
is/ are :- (3) To join antibiotic gene with E.coli plasmid
(1) Eco Rl (2) Hind III
(4) All of the above
(3) BamHI (4) All of the above
60. A giant rat is formed in the laboratory, what
53. If hemoglobin (Hb) of a normal individual and is the reason :-
a sickle-cell patient are run in electrophoretic (1) Gene mutation (2) Gene synthesis
field, they will show :- (3) Gene manipulation (4) Gene replication
(1) same mobilities
61. Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in
(2) different mobilities
the news. The prefix "Bt" means :-
(3) Hb of patient will not move at all
(1) "Barium -treated" cotton seeds.
(4) Hbs are immobile
(2) "Bigger thread': variety of cotton with
batter tensile strength.
54. Restriction enzyme Eco RI cuts the DNA
(3) Produced by "biotechnology" using
between bases G and A only when the
sequence in DNA is: restriction enzymes and ligases.
(1) GATATC (2) GAATTC (4) Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus
(3)GATTCC (4) GAACTT thuringiensis.

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62. The bacteria Pseudomonas is useful because 69. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
of its ability to ;- molecule is called :
(1) Transfer genes from one plant to another (1) Clone (2) Plasmid
(2) Dec ompo se a variety of orga nic (3) Vector (4) Probe
compounds
(3) Fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil 70. Genetic engineering has been successfuly
(4) Produce a wide variety of antibiotics used for producing:
(1) transgenic Cow-Roise which produces high
63. Cry-gene which synthesize crystal protein fat milk for making ghee
isolated from :- (2) animals like bulls for farm work as they
(1) Bacillus thuriengensis have super power
(2) Rhizobium (3) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio
vaccine before use in humans
(3) Bacillus polymyxa
(4) transgenic models for studying new
(4) Clostridium
treatments for certain cardiac diseases

64. Which of the following combination of risk

71. Which of the given statement is correct in
are associated with genetically modified food the context of observing DNA separated by
(1) Toxicity agarose gel electrophoresis ?
(2) Allergic reaction (1) DNA can be seen in visible light
(3) Antibiotic resistance in microorganism (2) DNA can be seen without staining in vis-
ible light
present in alimentary canal
(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen
(4) All the above in visible light
(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen
65. DNA probe is used for :- under exposure to UV light
(1) DNA finger printing
72. ‘Restriction’ in Restriction enzyme refers to:
(2) Detection of pathogenic bacteria
(1) Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA
(3) Medical genetics to find whether a person by the enzyme
carries a particular gene or not (2) Cutting of DNA at specific position only
(4) All the above (3) Prevention of the multiplication of bac-
teriophage in bacteria
66. Bt-cotton is resistant for :- (4) All of the above
(1) Round-worm (2) Fluke-worm
73. The most important feature in a plasmid to
(3) Boll-worm (4) Pin-worm be used as a vector is:
(1) Origin of replication (ori)
67. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop.
(2) Presence of a selectable marker
When released for cultivation. it will help in (3) Presence of sites for restriction endonu-
(1) Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency clease
(2) Pest resistance (4) Its size
(3) Herbicide tolerance 74. Which of the following has popularised the
(4) Producing a petrol-like fuel from rice PCR (polymerase chain reactions)?
(1) Easy availability of DNA template
68. An improved variety of transgenic basmati (2) Availability of synthetic primers
rice : (3) Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides
(1) is completely resistant to all insect pests (4) Availability of ‘Thermostable’ DNA poly-
and diseases of paddy merase
(2) gives high yield but has no characteristic 75. An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector
aroma usually helps in the selection of:
(3) does not require chemical fertilizers and (1) Competent cells
(2) Transformed cells
growth hormones
(3) Recombinant cells
(4) give high yield and is rich in vitamin A (4) None of the above

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76. The role of DNA ligase in the construction 83. A probe which is a molecule used to locate
of a recombinant DNA molecule is: specific sequences in a mixture of DNA or
(1) Formation of phosphodiester bond be- RNA molecules could be:
tween two DNA fragments (1) A single stranded RNA
(2) Formation of hydrogen bonds between (2) A single stranded DNA
sticky ends of DNA fragments (3) Either RNA or DNA
(3) Ligation of all purime and pyrimidine bases (4) Can be ss DNA but not ss RNA
(4) None of the above
84. Cho ose t he co rrect opt ion regard ing
77. Which of the following bacteria is not a source Retrovirus:
of restriction endonuclease? (1) An RNA virus that can synthesise DNA
(1) Haemophilus influenzae during infection
(2) Escherichia coli (2) A DNA virus that can synthesise RNA dur-
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens ing infection
(4) Bacillius amyloli (3) A ssDNA virus
(4) A dsRNA virus
78. A bacterial cell was transformed with a re-
combinant DNA that was generated using a 85. A protoxin is:
human gene. However, the transformed cells (1) A primitive toxin
did not produce the desired protein. Rea- (2) A denatured toxin
sons could be: (3) Toxin produced by protozoa
(1) Human gene may have intron which bac- (4) Inactive toxin
teria cannot process
(2) Amino acid codons for humans and bac- 86. The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus
teria are different thuringiensis is:
(3) Human protein is formed but degraded by (1) Acidic pH of stomach
bacteria (2) High temperature
(4) All of the above (3) Alkaline pH of gut
(4) Mechanical action in the insect gut
79. Who among the following was awarded the
Nobel Prize for the development of PCR
87. Golden rice is:
technique?
(1) A variety of rice grown along the yellow
(1) Herbert Boyer
river in China
(2) Hargovind Khurana
(2) Long stored rice having yellow colour tint
(3) Kary Mullis
(3) A transgenic rice having gene for - caro-
(4) Arthur Kornberg
tene
80. Which of the following statements does not (4) Wild variety of rice with yellow coloured
hold true for restriction enzyme? grains
(1) It recognises a palindromic nucleotide se-
quence 88. In RNAi, genes are silenced using:
(2) It is an endonuclease (1) ss DNA (2) ds DNA
(3) It is isolated from viruses (3) ds RNA (4) ss RNA
(4) It produces the same kind of sticky ends
in different DNA molecules 89. The first clinical gene therapy was done
for the treatment of:
81. C-peptide of human insulin is: (1) AIDS
(1) A part of mature insulin molecule (2) Cancer
(2) Responsible for formation of disulphide (3) Cystic fibrosis
bridges (4) SCID (Servere Combined Immuno Defi-
(3) Removed during maturation of pro-insulin ciency resulting form deficiency of ADA- Ad-
to insulin enosine deaminase)
(4) Responsible for its biological activity.
90. Silencing of a gene could be achieved
82. GEAC stands for: through the use of:
(1) Genome Engineering Action Committee (1) short interfering RNA (RNAi)
(2) Ground Environment Action Committee (2) antisense RNA
(3) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (3) by both
(4) Genetic and Environment Approval committee (4) none of the above

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PART - II [PHYSICS]
1. The maximum intensity produced of two 8. If in Young’s double slit experiment, the
coherent waves of intensity I1 and I2 will be - distance between the slits is halved and the
(A) I1 + I2 (B) I12 + I22 distance between slit and screen is doubled,
then the fringe width will become –
(C) I1 + I2 + 2 I1 I 2 (D) zero (A) half (B) double
(C) four times (D) unchanged
2. Two coherent waves are represented by
y1= a 1 cost and y 2 = a 2 sin  t. The 9. What happens when the width of slit aperture
resultant intensity due to interference will is increased by keeping ‘d’ as constant in
be - Young’s experiment -
(A) (a1 + a2) (B) (a1 – a2) (A) Fringe width will increase
(C) (a12 + a22) (D) (a12 – a22) (B) Fringe width will decrease
(C) Fringe width will remain unchanged
3. Coherence is measure of - (D) Gradually the fringes will be disappear
(A) Capability of producing interference by
waves 10. Young’s double slit experiment is made in a
(B) Waves being diffracted liquid. The 10th bright fringe in liquid lies where
(C) Waves being reflected 6th dark fringe lies in vacuum. The refractive
(D) Waves being refracted index of the liquid is approximately -
(A) 1.8 (B) 1.54
4. In Young’s double slit experiment with (C) 1.67 (D) 1.2
monochromatic light the central fringe will
be 11. If the ratio of maximum and minimum
(A) Coloured (B) White intensities in an interference pattern is 36 :
(C) Bright (D) Black 1 then the ratio of amplitudes of two
interfering waves will be -
5. If the path difference between the interfering (A) 5 : 7 (B) 7 : 4
waves is n, then the fringes obtained on (C) 4 : 7 (D) 7 : 5
the screen will be -
(A) Dark (B) Bright 12. In double slit experiment using light of
(C) coloured (D) White wavelength 600 nm, the angular width of a
fringe formed on a distant screen is 0.1°.
6. Mark the correct statement while performing What is the spacing between the two slits ?
Young’s experiment the width of the slits is (A) 3.44 × 10+4 m (B) 3.44 × 10–4 m
gradually increased, then -
(C) 2.44 × 10–4 m (D) 2.44 × 10+4 m
(A) Fringe width increase and finally the
fringes disappear
13. If Young’s double slit experiment is performed
(B) Fringe width decreases and finally the in still and clear water, instead of air, then
fringes disappear fringe pattern -
(C) Fringes get blurred (A) will shrink (B) will disappear
(D) Fringe width remains constant and they (C) willl be enlarged (D) none of these
appear brighter
14. In the double slit experiment when a glass
7. The fringe width in a Young’s double slit plate (refractive index 1.5) of thickness t is
experiment can be increased. If we decrease introduced in the path of one of the
(A) Width of the slits interfering beams (wavelength ), intensity
(B) Separation of the slits at the position where the central maximum
(C) Wavelength of the light used occurred previously remains unchanged.
(D) Distance between slits and screen Minimum thickness of the glass plate is -
(A) 2 (B) 2/3
(C) /3 (D) 

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15. In Young’s experiment, wavelength of red light 22. The fringe width in single slit diffraction
is 7.8 × 10–8 cm and that of blue light is pattern is proportional to
5.2 × 10–8cm. Value of n for which (n + 1)th
(A) a/ (B) /a
blue bright line coincides with nth red fringe is-
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) a (D) 
(C) 3 (D) 4
23. The condition for obtaining maxima in the
16. Central fringe obtained in diffraction pattern diffraction pattern due to a single slit is -
due to a single slit -

(A) is of minimum intensity (A) a sin  = (2n – 1)
(B) is of maximum intensity 2
(C) intensity depends upon slit width (B) a sin = n
(D) None of the above
n
(C) a sin =
17. In the diffraction pattern of a single slit 2
aperture, the width of the central fringe (D) a sin = (2n + 1)
compared to widths of the other fringes, is
(A) Equal (B) Less 24. For n th order maxima in Fraunhoffer
(C) Little more (D) Double diffraction by a single slit aperture, the value
of path difference should be
18. What happens, when the width of the slit (A) n (B) 2n
aperture, is increased in an experiment of
(C) /2 (2n + 1) (D) (2n + 1)
single slit diffraction
(A) Spread of diffraction region is increased
(B) Spread of diffraction region is decreased 25. A slit of width 12 × 10–7 m is illuminated by
(C) Spread of diffraction region will be light of wavelength 6000Å. The angular width
decreased but mid-band becomes narrow of the central maximum is approximately -
(D) None of above (A) 30º (B) 60º
(C) 90º (D) 0º
19. In a single slit diffraction pattern, if the light
source is used of less wave length then 26. Polarisation of light proves the -
previous one. Then width of the central fringe
(A) corpuscular nature of light
will be -
(B) quantum nature of light
(A) Less (B) Increase
(C) Unchanged (D) None of these (C) transverse wave nature of light
(D) longitudinal wave nature of light
20. For fraunhoffer single slit diffraction
(A) Width of central maxima is proportional 27. Waves that cannot be polarised are -
to  (A) light waves
(B) On increasing the slit width, the width of (B) electromagnetic waves
central maxima decreases. (C) transverse waves
(C) On making the slit width a = , central (D) longitudinal waves
spreads in the range ± 90º
(D) All of the above are correct 28. The angle of incidence at which reflected
light is totally polarised for reflection from air
21. The positions of minima in the diffraction to glass (refractive index n) is -
pattern due to a single slit are expressed by (A) sin–1 (n) (B) sin–1 (1/n)
the formula- (C) tan–1 (1/n) (D) tan–1 (n)
(A) a sin  = n
 29. The polaroid glass is used in sunglasses
(B) a sin  =(2n + 1)
2 as -
n (A) it is a fashion
(C) a sin =
2 (B) this reduce glare
 (C) this is cheaper than other types
(D) a sin = (2n – 1) ×
2 (D) this looks more beautiful

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Page # 11 AIPMT_12TH

30. In a Fraunhoffer diffraction experiment, the 36. Two Nicol prism are first crossed and then
screen is at a distance of 1.0m and an one of them is rotated through 60º. The
aperture of 0.10 mm diameter is illuminated percentage of incident light transmitted is -
by light of wavelength 6000Å. The distance (A) 1.25 (B) 25.0
of first maxima from the central ring is (C) 37.5 (D) 50
(A) 6mm (B) 1.2 mm
(C) 3 mm (D) 0.3 mm 37. First diffraction minima due to a single slit of
width 10–4cm is at  = 30º. The wavelength
31. A Fraunhoffer’s single slit diffraction is of the light used is –
observed in the focal plane of a lens of focal (A) 4000 Å (B) 5000 Å
length one metre. Slit width is 0.3 mm. The
(C) 6000 Å (D) 6250 Å
2nd minima is observed at a distance of
4mm from the central maxima. Then the wave
38. Light of wavelength  is incident on a slit of
length of the light used is
width d and distance between screen and
(A) 5000Aº (B) 6000Aº
slit is D. Then width of central maxima and
(C) 6500Aº (D) 5400Aº
width of slit will be equal if D is –
32. The light from a narrow circular aperture is d2 2d
brought to focus on a screen using convex (A) (B)
 
lens. If the wavelength of the light is  and
diameter of the aperture is D, the angular
2d 2 d2
width of the central bright ring shall be (C) (D)
 2
approximately -

2 
(A) (B) 39. Width of the principal maximum on a screen at
D 2D
a distance of 50 cm from the slit having width
D 2D 0.02 cm is 312.5 × 10–3cm. If waves were
(C) (D) incident normally on the slit, then wavelength
 
of the light from the source will be –
(A) 6000 Å (B) 6250 Å
33. In propagation of electromagnetic waves the
angle between the direction of propagation (C) 6400 Å (D) 6525 Å
and plane of polarisation is -
40. Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern of a single slit
(A) 0º (B) 45º
is obtained in the focal plane of lens of focal
(C) 90º (D) 180º
length 1m. If third maximum is formed at a
distance of 5mm from the central maximum
34. A beam of light strikes a piece of glass at an
and wavelength of light used is 5000Å, then
angle of incidence of 60º and the reflected
width of the slit will be –
beam is completely plane polarised. The
(A) 0.02 cm (B) 0.03 cm
refractive index of the glass is -
(C) 0.04 cm (D) 1 cm
(A)1.5 (B) 3
41. Distance between first and sixth minima in
(C) 2 (D) (3/2)
the diffraction pattern of a single slit is 0.5
mm. Screen is 50 cm away from the slit. If slit
35. A polaroid is place at 45º to an incoming
width is 2.5mm, then wavelength of light used
light of intensity I0. Now the intensity of light
is –
passing through the polaroid after polarisation
(A) 5000 Å (B) 6000 Å
would be -
(C) 6500 Å (D) 8000 Å
(A) I0 (B) I0/2
(C) I0/4 (D) zero

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Page # 12 AIPMT_12TH

42. A parallel monochromatic beam of light is 44. Light of wavelength 5000Å is incident
incident normally on a narrow slit. A normally on a slit. First minimum of diffraction
diffraction pattern is formed on a screen pattern is formed at a distance of 5mm from
placed perpendicular to the direction of the central maximum. If slit width is 0.2 mm,
incident beam. For the first minimum of the then distance between slit and screen will
diffraction pattern the phase difference be –
between the rays coming from the edges of (A) 1m (B) 1.5m
the slit is – (C) 2.0 m (D) 2.5 m
(A) 2 (B) 
(C) 2 (D) 0 45. Light of wavelength  is incident on a slit.
First minima of the diffraction pattern is found
43. Light of wavelength 6000Å is normally to lie at a distance of 6mm from the central
incident on a slit. Angular position of second maximum on a screen placed at a distance
minimum from central maximum is 30º. Width of 2m from the slit. If slit width is 0.2 mm,
of the slit should be – then wavelength of the light used will be –
(A) 12 × 10–5cm (B) 18 × 10–5cm (A) 4000Å (B) 6000Å
(C) 24 × 10–5cm (D) 36 × 10–5cm (C) 7000Å (D) 7400Å

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Page # 13 AIPMT_12TH

PART - III [CHEMISTRY]

1. Which of the following monosaccharides is a pentose- 10. A pigment protein in animals is-
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose (A) Chlorophyll (B) Insulin
(C) Ribose (D) Galactose (C) Keratin (D) Haemoglobin

2. Ring structure of glucose is due to formation 11. The main structural feature of proteins is-
(A) An ester linkage
of hemiacetal and ring formation between-
(B) An ether linkage
(A) C1 and C5 (B) C1 and C4 (C) The peptide linkage
(C) C1 and C3 (D) C2 and C4 (D) All

3. Glucose is- 12. -Helical structure refers to the-

(A) Monosaccharide (B) Disaccharide (A) Primary structure of protein
(C) Trisaccharide (D) Polysaccharide (B) Secondary structure of protein
(C) Tertiary structure of protein
4. Hydrolysis of sucrose is called- (D) Quaternary structure of proteins

(A) Esterification (B) Saponification

13. Simplest amino acid is-
(C) Inversion (D) Hydration (A) Lysine (B) Glycine
(C) Leucine (D) Alanine
5. Starch is changed into disaccharide in pres-
ence of- 14. Hair, finger, nails, hoofs etc. are all made of-
(A) Amylase (B) Maltase (A) Fat (B) Vitamins
(C) Lactase (D) Zymase (C) Proteins (D) Iron

6. The disaccharide present in milk is-

15. Mark the globular protein in the following-
(A) Sucrose (B) Maltose
(A) Collagen
(C) Lactose (D) Cellobiose
(B) Myoglobin or Haemoglobin
7. The pH value of the solution in which a par- (C) Myosin (D) Fibroin
ticular amino acid does not migrate under
the influence of electric field is called its- 16. The base present in RNA but not found in
(A) Eutectic point (B) Neutralisation point DNA is-
(C) Isoelectric point (D) Effusion point (A) Thymine (B) Uracil
(C) Adenine (D) Guanine
8. The number of essential amino acids for the
growth & maintenance of life is-
(A) 1 (B) 2 17. Which of the following fibres is a polyamide-
(C) 4 (D) 8 (A) Orlon (B) Nylon-6
(C) Dacron (D) Rayon
9. Secondary structure of proteins refers to-
(A) Mainly denatured proteins and structure 18. Formaldehyde is not used in the manufac-
of prosthetic group ture of the following polymer-
(B) Three dimensional structure specially the (A) Bakelite (B) Nylon-6
bond between amino acid residues that are
(C) Urea resin (D) Melamine resin
distant from each other in polypeptide chain
(C) Linear sequence of amino acid residue in
19. Which is a naturally occuring polymer-
the polypeptide chain
(A) Polyethene (B) PVC
(D) Regular folding patterns of continuous
portion of the polypeptide chain (C) Teflon (D) Protein
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Education is what survives when what has been learned has been forgotten
Page # 14 AIPMT_12TH

20. Natural fibre is-

30. Glyptal polymer is obtained from glycol by
(A) Starch (B) Cellulose reacting with-
(C) Rubber (D) Nylon-6 (A) Malonic acid (B) Phthalic acid
(C) Maleic acid (D) Acetic acid
21. Monomer of polystyrene is-
(A) Vinyl benzene 31. Which of the following is a homopolymer ob-
(B) Divinyl benzene tained from single monomer under the con-
(C) Ethyl benzene densation process-

(D) Butyl benzene (A) Nylon – 6 (B) Terylene

(C) Glyptal (D) Bakelite
22. The fibre used for the manufacture of chords
and carpets is- 32. Which of the following is not a narcotic-
(A) Polyethylene (B) Polypropylene (A) Codeine (B) Brown Sugar
(C) Polyacrylonitrile (D) Polyvinyl chloride (C) Diclofenac (D) Morphine

23. Which is not the example of addition poly- 33. Which of the following medicine is required
mer- for malaria-
(A) Glyptal (B) Polypropylene (A) Aspirin
(C) Polystyrene (D) Polyvinyl chloride (B) Penicillin
(C) Chloroquine
24. Symbolic name for teflon is-
(D) Paracetamol
(A) PTFE (B) PCTFE
(C) PVC (D) None 34. Streptomycin is an example of
(A) Antibiotic (B) Analgesic
25. The S in Buna-S stands for-
(C) Antipyretic (D) Anaesthetic.
(A) Sodium (B) Sulphur
(C) Styrene (D) Just a trade name 35. Which of the following is not a narcotic drug-
(A) Opium (B) Heroin
26. Which of the following is not the addition
(C) Pethidine (D) Bithional
homopolymer-
(A) Teflon (B) Buna-S 36. Chloroxylenol is an important component of
(C) P.V.C. (D) P.A.N.
(A) Soap (B) Antibiotics
27. Phenol is used in the manufacture of- (C) Dettol (D) Pain killing oint-
(A) Bakelite (B) Polystyrene ments
(C) Nylon (D) PVC
37. Which of the following is an antidepressants-
28. In vulcanisation of rubber- (A) Chloroxylenol (B) Bithional
(A) Sulphur reacts to form new compound (C) Cocaine (D) Penicillin -G
(B) Sulphur cross-links are introduced
(C) Sulphur forms a very thin protective layer 38. Which of the following is used as pain killers-
over rubber (A) Antibiotic (B) Analgesic
(D) All of the statements are correct (C) Antipyretic (D) Penicillin
29. Which is a homopolymer-
(A) Isotactic poly vinylchloride 39. Which one is a broad spectrum antibiotic-
(B) Atactic polypropylene (A) Chloremphenicol (B) Penicillin
(C) Syndiotactic polystyrene (C) Paracetamol (D) Ampicillin
(D) All of these

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Page # 15 AIPMT_12TH

40. Penicillin is an 43. Morphine is used then as an

(A) Antibiotic (B) Antipyretic (A) Antipyretic (B) Antiseptic
(C) Hormone (D) Vitamin (C) Analgesic (D) Insecticide.

41. Which of the following can bring down the body 44. A substance which can act both as an anal-
temperature- gesic and antipyretic is
(A) Aspirin (B) Chloroquine (A) Quinine (B) Aspirin
(C) Penicillin (D) Quinine (C) Penicillin (D) Insulin.

42. Which of the following can be used as an 45. The polar head of sodium stearate is-
analgesic- (A) Na+ (B) H+
(A) Paracetamol (B) Penicillin (C) –COO– (D) CH3(CH2)16
(C) Chloremphenicol (D) Streptomycin.

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