06-07-2025

5301CMD303005250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) The value of x on solving the quadratic equation 2x2 – 7x + 5 = 0 is :-

(1)
and 1

(2)
and 1

(3)
and 1

(4)
and – 1

2) For ellipse , the co-ordinate of point A & B are respectively :-

(1) (0, 3) & (5, 0)

(2) (3, 0) & (0, 5)
(3) (0, 9) & (25, 0)
(4) (25, 0) & (0, 9)

3) Value of (1.002)3 = .....

(1) 1.008
(2) 1.004
(3) 1.006
(4) 1.005

4) ln(1000) = ?

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9

5)

If tan θ = then value of θ are :-

(1) 30°, 150°
(2) 60°, 120°
(3) 150°, 210°
(4) 150°, 330°

6) radian = ...........?

(1) 60°
(2) 18°
(3) 36°
(4) 108°

7) If radius R = 9m and angle θ = 120° then find arc length S = ?

(1) 1080 m
(2) 13.33 m
(3) 6π m
(4) 9 m

8) Find the value of sin(–30° ) + cos (–30°) :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9)

The value of – tan (–30°) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 1

10)
cos215° – sin215° = .......... ?

(1)

(2) 1

(3)

(4)

11)

Which of following can be correct for any value of θ :-

(1) sin θ = –2
(2) cos θ = 2
(3) tan θ = 1000
(4) All

12) For given graph of straight line. Which statement is correct :-

(1) Slope angle is 143°

(2) Intercept on y-axis is 10
(3) Slope is negative
(4) All above

13)

The slope of straight line AB is :-

+
(1)

(2)
–
(3)

(4)
–

14)

When x changes from 0 to then the area bounded by the curve y = sinx and the x-axis will be :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2

(4)

15) The slope of straight line is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 3

16) If –3x – 5y = 15 then y – x graph is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17)

If y = 2x3 – 12x2 + 36, then for minimum value of y is :

(1) x=0
(2) x = 4
(3) x =1
(4) None

18)

The path of a moving particle in x–y plane is shown in the figure. The point at which rate of change
of y coordinate w.r.t. time i.e. dy/dt is zero is

(1) A1
(2) A2
(3) A3
(4) A4

19) If y = 5x2 – 2x then value of x for which, y is minimum is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) If y = sin2x + cos2x, then is :-

(1) 2sin x + 2cos x

(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) 2sin x – 2cos x

21) If y = 4x2 + 5 then slope of y – x graph at x = 2 is :-

(1) 21
(2) 16
(3) 8
(4) 13

22) If s = 3t3 – 2t2 + 2t – 7 then at t = 3, =

(1) 71
(2) 72
(3) 73
(4) 74

23) If y = 2sin2x then is :-

(1) sin 2x
(2) cos 2x
(3) 2sin 2x
(4) 2cos 2x

24) = ......?

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 2 + π

25) Maximum value of 5 sinθ – 12 cosθ is:-

(1) 13
(2) 5
(3) 12
(4) None

26)

1– + – + – +....... =?

(1) 3/2
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) None of these

27)

The value of sin (300°) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Value of sin 1° is approximately equal to:-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

29) Graph of 4x2 + 4y2 = 16 can be given by is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) (ex cosx) = ?

(1) ex(cosx + sinx)

(2) ex(cosx – sinx)
(3) ex(sinx – cosx)
(4) None

31)

If y = 2x3–15x2+36x+11 then which of following is correct:-

(1) There is a maxima at x = 3
(2) There is a maxima at x = 2
(3) The maximum value of y is 49
(4) The minimum value of y is 35

32)

Evaluate =

(1) –5 sin (5x – 3) + c

(2) 5 sin (5x – 3) + c

(3)
– sin (5x – 3) + c

(4)
sin (5x – 3) + c

33)

If y = dx then find :-

(1) 3x2 + 2x +1

(2)
+x+c
(3) x3+x2+ x + 1
(4) None

34)

If v = (2t + 1) m/sec then average velocity from t = 0 to t = 2 sec is :-

(1) 6 m/sec
(2) 3 m/sec
(3) 4 m/sec
(4) 8 m/sec

35) Given, , which of the following graph is a straight line ?

(1) F-r graph

(2) F-r2 graph

(3)
graph

(4)
graph
36) A clock shows 5 O' clock, how much angle between its minute and hour needles make ?

(1) 150°
(2) 120°
(3) 100°
(4) 90°

37) If radius of circle decreases as 0.2 cm/sec., then rate of change of its area (when radius of circle
is 1cm) will be :-

(1) 0.6π cm2/sec

(2) 0.4π cm2/sec
(3) 0.4 cm2/sec
(4) 0.2 cm2/sec

38) Calculate the distance between two points (0, –1, 1) and (3, 3, 13) : –

(1) 5
(2) 12
(3) 13
(4) 17

39) Degree measure corresponding to radian is:

(1) 350°
(2) 380°
(3) 324°
(4) None

40) log5x – log5y = 2, Find :-

(1) 100
(2) 32
(3) 25
(4) 75

41)

(1) 2sinθ
(2) 2cosθ
(3) sinθ
(4) cosθ

42) The maximum and minimum values of expression (4–2 cos θ) respectively are
(1) 4 and 0
(2) 4 and 2
(3) 6 and 0
(4) 6 and 2

43) Which of two following graph is the best representation for the given equation.
y = sinx

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The graph for xy = 2 will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

45) The area of figure shown below is :-

(1) 15
(2) 60 π
(3) 15 π
(4) 30 π

CHEMISTRY

1)

Which is not isoelectronic with O2– :-

(1) N–3
(2) Na+
(3) F–
(4) Ti+

2) Ratio of neutrons in 'C' & 'Si' having atomic masses 12 and 28 respectively are -

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 3 : 7
(4) 7 : 3

3) Which electron is associated with the least energy:-

(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +1/2

(2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
(3) n = 4, l = 1, m = +1, s = +1/2
(4) n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2

4) Which of the following metal ions will have maximum number of unpaired electrons :-
(1) Fe2+
(2) Co2+
(3) Ni2+
(4) Mn2+

5) In zinc atom, how many electrons have n = 3 and ℓ = 2

(1) 10
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 2

6)

Maximum number of electrons in M-shell will be

(1) 8
(2) 18
(3) 32
(4) 50

7)

Which of the following subshell will exists -

(1) 3f
(2) 3d
(3) 1p
(4) 2d

8) If n = 3, = 1, m = 0, the orbital notation will be-

(1) 3Pz
(2) 3Px
(3) 3Py
(4)

9)

Information about orientation of orbital in 3D space is given by

(1) Principal quantum number

(2) Azimuthal quantum number
(3) Magnetic quantum number
(4) Spin quantum number
10)

Number of orbitals in N-shell is :-

(1) 9
(2) 4
(3) 16
(4) 25

11) A transition metal 'X' has a configuration [Ar] 3d5 in its + 3 oxidation state. Its atomic number
is:–

(1) 22
(2) 26
(3) 28
(4) 19

12) Which of the following set of elements have exceptional electronic configuration ?

(1) N, F
(2) Cr, Fe
(3) K, Ar
(4) Cu, Cr

13) The correct formula of orbital angular momentum is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The possible correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of Cl atom is : –

(1)
2, 0, 0, +
2, 1, –1,+
(2)

(3)
3, 1, 1,+

(4)
3, 0, ±

15) An anion X–3 of an element has mass number 14, if there are 10 electrons in the anion, the
number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom of the above element will be :-
(1) 10
(2) 14
(3) 7
(4) 5

16) For azimuthal quantum number ℓ = 2, the maximum number of electrons will be -

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 0
(4) 10

17) Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not valid ?

(1) n = 2, m = 1
(2) n = 1, ℓ = 2
(3) n = 3, ℓ = 0
(4) n = 4, ℓ = 2

18) The correct ground state electronic configuration of chromium atom is :-

(1) [Ar]3d54s1
(2) [Ar]3d44s2
0
(3) [Ar]3d64s
(4) [Ar]4d54s1

19) Which two orbitals are located along the axis, and not between the axis ?

(1)
(2) dxy, pz
(3) dyz, px
(4)

20) The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is given as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The relative abundance of two rubidium isotopes of atomic weights 85 and 87 are 75% and 25%
respectively. The average atomic wt. of rubidium is:–
(1) 75.5
(2) 85.5
(3) 86.5
(4) 87.5

22) The explanation for presence of three unpaired electrons in the nitrogen atom can be given by:-

(1) Pauli's exclusion principle

(2) Hund's rule
(3) Aufbau principle
(4) Uncertainity principle

23) Lother Mayer's curve was plotted against :-

(1) Atomic weight v/s melting point

(2) Atomic volume v/s boiling point
(3) Atomic weight v/s atomic volume
(4) Atomic number v/s atomic weight

24) Atom 1H2 and 2He3 are related to each other as:-

(1) Isotopes
(2) Isosters
(3) Isotone
(4) None of these

25) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I(quantum number) List-II(Orbital)

(a) n = 2, ℓ = 1 (i) 2s

(b) n = 3, ℓ = 2 (ii) 3s

(c) n = 3, ℓ = 0 (iii) 2 p

(d) n = 2, ℓ = 0 (iv) 3 d
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
(2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

26) In if mass attributed to electrons were doubled and the mass attributed to protons were
halved. the atomic mass would become approximately :

(1) Halved
(2) Doubled
(3) Reduced by 25%
(4) Remain same

27) The orbital diagram in which both the Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule are violated is
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) In a given atom, no two electrons can have the same values for all the four quantum numbers.
This is called :-

(1) Hund's rule

(2) Aufbau principle
(3) Uncertainity principle
(4) Pauli's exclusion principle

29) In the potassium the probable order of energy level for 19th electron is :

(1) 3s > 3d
(2) 4s < 3d
(3) 4s > 4p
(4) 4s = 3d

30) According to Newland's law of octaves, the properties of Li were similar to :-

(1) Na
(2) Ca
(3) Mg
(4) Al

31) Which of the following element follow Newland's octave Rule ?

(1) Li, Na, K

(2) F, Cl, Br
(3) B, Al, Ga
(4) Na, K, Rb

32) Which of the following element was present in mendeleev's periodic table ?

(1) Sc
(2) Tc
(3) Al
(4) Ge

33) Newland's law is applicable only up to which element ?

(1) Ca
(2) K
(3) Li
(4) Na

34) Which of the following is/are Dobereiner's triad

(1) Ca Sr Ba
(2) F Cl Br
(3) Li Na K
(4) A and C both

35)

Mendeleev's periodic law is based on

(1) Atomic weight

(2) Atomic number
(3) Number of neutrons
(4) None of these

36) Which is not anomalous pair of elements in the Medeleeves periodic table -

(1) Ar and K
(2) Co and Ni
(3) Te and I
(4) Al and Si

37) In Lother Mayer's curve peak positions were occupied by :-

(1) Alkali metals

(2) Highly reactive metals
(3) Elements having high atomic volume
(4) All

38) Whose atomic weight was corrected by Mendeleev ?

(1) B
(2) I
(3) In
(4) Na

39)
Identify A, B and C respectively in the given curve?

(1) Li, F, Be
(2) Be, Li, F
(3) Li, Mg, Cl
(4) F, K, Ca

40) Considering mendeleev’s periodic table, which of the following is wrong ?

(1) Elements were arranged in increasing order of their atomic masses

(2) There were 7 periods & 8 groups
(3) Some gaps were left for then undiscovered elements
(4) None

41) Given below are two statements about X-ray spectra of elements :
Statement (I) : A plot of (ν = frequency of X-rays emitted) vs atomic mass is a straight line.
Statement (II) : A plot of ν(ν = frequency of X-rays emitted) vs atomic number is a straight line.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

42) Atomic weight of an element X is 40 and that of element Z is 60. Atomic weight of their
intermediate element Y, as per Dobereiner's triad will be :

(1) 40
(2) 50
(3) 60
(4) 100

43) O2 is a

(1) compound
(2) Pure substance
(3) element
(4) Both (2) and (3)

44) Which of the following is an example of a homogenous mixture :-

(1) Water + Sand

(2) Water + Alcohol
(3) Water + Oil
(4) None of these

45) A pure substance can only be :

(1) a compound
(2) an element
(3) an element or a compound
(4) a heterogeneous mixture

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following is largest isolated single cell?

(1) Nerve cell

(2) Ostrich egg
(3) RBC
(4) Mycoplasma

2) Cell is______and______unit of life.

(1) Structural
(2) Functional
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) Fundamental unique

3) In eukaryotic cells, why there is a extensive compartmentalization of cytoplasm?

(1) Due to the presence of fibres

(2) Due to the presence of so many organelles
(3) Due to the presence of membranous organelles
(4) All of the above

4) Regarding differences between animal & plant cells, which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Animal cells contain centrioles & cell wall, plant cells do not
(2) Animal cells contain centrioles & plant cells contain plastids, cell wall and large central vacuole
(3) Animal cells do not contain centrioles but plant cells contain centrioles
(4) Animal cells contain plastids, while plants cells do not contain plastids

5) One of the most important function of the plasma membrane is :-

(1) Formtion of nuclear membrane

(2) Tranport of molecules across it
(3) Export of macromolecules
(4) Detoxification

6) Studies of the cell membrane showed that, it is composed of lipids which are:-

(1) Arranged in unilayer

(2) Arranged in protein bilayer
(3) Arranged in bilayer
(4) Arranged in multilayer

7) Functions like cell growth, formation of intercellular junctions are possible due to which nature of
the membrane ?

(1) Selective permeable nature.

(2) Living nature.
(3) Fluid nature.
(4) Stable nature.

8) Facilitated diffusion involves :-

(1) Protein and energy.

(2) Glucose and energy.
(3) Lipid and energy.
(4) Participation of carrier protein not energy

9) Which does not occur in cell membrane ?

(1) Glycolipid
(2) Nucleic acid
(3) Phospholipid
(4) Cholesterol

10) Movement of water across the semi-permeable membrane occurs by :

(1) Diffusion
(2) Osmosis
(3) Active transport
(4) All of the above

11) The smallest cell is

(1) Ostrich egg

(2) Mycoplasma
(3) WBC
(4) Liver cell
12) In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane :-

(1) Proteins are embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer

(2) Carbohydrates are sandwiched in lipid layer
(3) Proteins are present only on outer surface
(4) Proteins are embedded in a phospholipid bilayer

13) Membrane proteins can be classified as integral or peripheral on the basis of :-

(1) Attachment
(2) Type of amino acid
(3) Size
(4) Ease of extraction

14) Phospholipid molecules of cell membrane have :-

(1) One polar head and one polar tail

(2) One non-polar head and two polar tail
(3) Two polar head and two non-polar tails
(4) One polar head and two non-polar tails

15) Who proposed the theory that "cells arise only from pre-existing cells" ?

(1) Mohl
(2) Virchow
(3) Haeckel
(4) Brown

16) What is the percentage of protein and lipid in the plasmalemma of RBC respectively?

(1) 58%, 40%

(2) 40%, 58%
(3) 52%, 40%
(4) 40%, 52%

17) Molecules which are transported across the membrane against their concentration gradient.
Such a transport is called :–

(1) Active transport, e.g., diffusion

(2) Passive transport, e.g., diffusion
(3) Active transport, e.g., Na+/K+ pump
(4) Osmosis, a type of simple diffusion

18) What is the size of a typical eukaryotic cell :-

(1) 1–2 µm
(2) 10 – 20 µm
(3) 10 – 20 mm
(4) 1 – 2 mm

19) According to the fluid mosaic model, the A nature of lipids enables lateral movement of B
within the bilayer. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as its C .

(1) A-Solid, B-Proteins, C-Fluidity

(2) A-Quasi-Fluid, B-Lipids, C-Fluidity
(3) A-Quasi Fluid, B-Proteins, C-Fluidity
(4) A- Solid, B-Lipids, C-Fluidity

20) Read the following statements and choose right option regarding them :-
(I) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existance.
(II) Anton von leeuwenhock first saw and described a live cell.

(1) Statement I and II both are incorrect

(2) Statement I correct and II incorrect
(3) Statement I and II both are correct
(4) Statement I incorrect and II correct

21) Cell theory was proposed by :-

(1) Singer and Nicolson

(2) Schleiden and Schwann
(3) Fleming
(4) Watson and Crick

22) Which of the following cell is long and branched?

(1) Mesophyll cell

(2) Nerve cell
(3) Tracheids
(4) Epithelial cells

23) Several ribosomes attach to a single m–RNA and form a chain called as :-

(1) Polysome
(2) Microsome
(3) Axoneme
(4) Mesosome
24) Identify the given cells :-

(1) A-RBC B-Nerve cell

(2) A-WBC B-Nerve cell
(3) A-WBC B-Tracheid cell
(4) A-RBC B-Tracheid cell

25) Choose correct labelling from below options ?

a b c d
1 Cell wall Centriole Mitochondria SER
2 Cell membrane Mitochondria Centriole RER
3 Cell wall Centromere Chloroplast Golgibody
4 Cell membrane Chloroplast Centriole Golgibody

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Find the correct labelling ?

A B C D E F
 Cell Golgi
(1) Lysosome SER Nucleus Cytoplasm
wall complex

(2) Lysosome RER Nucleus Cell wall Vacuole Cytoplasm

Cell
(3) Lysosome RER Vacuole Nucleus Cytoplasm
wall

Cell
(4) Mitochondria SER Nucleus Vacuole Peroxisome
wall
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Identify A,B,C and D in following diagram :-

1. A=Sugar B=Cholesterol C=Lipid D=Protein bilayer

2. A=Sugar B=Cholesterol C=Protein D=Lipid bilayer

3. A=Sugar B=Protein C=Cholesterol D=Lipid bilayer

4. A=Cholesterol B=Sugar C=Lipid D=Protein bilayer

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Assertion :- Carrier protein of the membrane is needed to transport polar molecules.
Reason :- Polar molecules cannot pass through the non-polar lipid bilayer.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) Assertion: Peripheral protein can be extracted easily from membrane.

Reason: Peripheral protein lie on the surface of membrane.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30) Assertion : Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both plants and animals cells
Reason : Various chemical reactions occurs in it to keep the cells in living state.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

31) Assertion (A) :- All living organisms are composed of cells and product of cells.
Reason (R) :- All cells are made up of plasma membrane & cytoplasm.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).

32) Assertion (A) : Ribosomes are non-membrane bound organelles found in all cells.
Reason (R) : The prokaryotic cells lack membrane bound organelles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

33) Which is not found in bacteria ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) DNA
(3) Ribosome
(4) Cytoplasm

34) Delimiting structure of animal cell is :-

(1) Cell wall

(2) Cell membrane
(3) Plasmodesmata
(4) Desmosome

35) Eukaryotic cell differs from prokaryotic cell in possessing :

(1) Nuclear membrane
(2) Ribosome
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Cell membrane

36) Bacillus, Coccus, Vibrio and Spirillum are four basic shapes of :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) PPLO
(3) Mycoplasma
(4) Both (2) and (3)

37) In which method of transport in plasma membrane does not require carrier ?

(1) Na+ – K+ pump

(2) Active transport
(3) Simple diffusion
(4) Fascilitated diffusion

38) Cell-membrane or plasma membrane is :-

(1) Impermeable
(2) Semi-permeable
(3) Selectively permeable
(4) Permeable

39) Main fluid component of plasma membrane is :-

(1) Protein
(2) Phospholipid
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) Cholestrol

40) Cell wall of prokaryotes is made up of :-

(1) Chitin
(2) Cellulose
(3) Glucose
(4) Peptidoglycan

41) Which of the following is a function of the cell wall in prokaryotic cells?

(1) Protein synthesis

(2) DNA replication
(3) Providing structural support and protection
(4) Regulating cell growth

42) Prokaryotic ribosomes are :-

(1) 50 S
(2) 60 S
(3) 70 S
(4) 80 S

43) Which of the following is true about inclusion bodies

(1) Membraneless
(2) Present freely in cytoplasm
(3) Store phosphate, glycogen
(4) All of the above

44) Which one of the following is not correct for mesosome ?

(1) Help in cell wall formation

(2) Help to increase the surface area of the plasma membrane
(3) Help in DNA replication
(4) Help in photosynthesis

45) Assertion (A): Plasmid DNA confers certain unique phenotypic characters to bacteria.
Reason (R): Despite the variety in shapes, the fundamental organization of prokaryotic cells is
similar across different types.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

46)

Select the false statement with respect to epithelial tissue.

(1) It has a free surface

(2) It faces body fluids sometimes
(3) It faces the external environment sometimes
(4) it sometimes forms middle structure part of organs

47) The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in :-

(1) Neural tissue

(2) Muscular tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

48) Exoskeleton originated form (Eg feathers, nail, horn, hooves) :-

(1) Connective tissue proper

(2) Epithelium tissue
(3) Skeletal tissue
(4) Vascular tissue

49) Brush border epithelium occurs in

(1) Trachea
(2) Stomach
(3) Small intestine
(4) Fallopian tube.

50) The function of the gap junction is to :

(1) stop substance from leaking across a tissue

(2) performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together
Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer
(3)
of ions, small molecules and some large molecules
(4) separate two cells from each other

51) Which of the following contributes maximum part of our body weight?

(1) Epithelium tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

52) The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In
humans, these cells are mainly present in :

(1) Bile duct and Bronchioles

(2) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct
(3) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct
(4) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

53) Epithelial tissues is originated from :-

(1) Outer germinal layer

(2) Innermost germinal layer
(3) Middle germinal layer
(4) All three germinal layer

54) Non-ciliated simple columnar epithelium contains _____, which increases the surface area for
secretion and absorption.

(1) flagella
(2) collagen fibres
(3) microvilli
(4) all of these

55) Simple epithelium is not useful in :-

(1) Diffusion
(2) Reabsorption
(3) Filtration
(4) Protecting the underlying tissue

56) Basement membrane is made up of :-

(1) Endodermal cells

(2) Epidermal cells
(3) Both endodermal and epiderml cells
(4) No cells at all, but it is a product of epithelial cells and connective tissues

57) Which of the following is made up of cube like cells?

(1) Epithelium of fallopian tubes

(2) Epithelium of PCT
(3) Epithelium of stomach
(4) Epithelium of alveoli

58)

Cells of the epithelial tissue rest on a basement membrane, which is made up of :-

(1) Monosaccharides
(2) Mucopolysaccharides
(3) Disaccharides
(4) Lipids

59) Transitional epithelium is found in –

(1) Urinary bladder

(2) Kidney
(3) Gall bladder
(4) Liver

60) Assertion : Simple cuboidal epithelium is also called as germinal epithelium

Reason : Cuboidal cells of gonads forms gametes.
(1) Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Assertion & Reason are false

61)

Mouth, throat, sweat gland duct, salivary gland duct, mammary gland duct, urinary bladder, ureters,
renal pelvis, how many of them contain transitional epithelium ?

(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 2

62)

Choose the correct location of tissue w.r.t. the given diagram.

(1) Proximal convoluted tubule

(2) Blood vessels
(3) Air sacs of lungs
(4) Cover the dry surface of the skin

63)

Unicellular glands are :-

(1) Sweat glands and Goblet cells

(2) Paneth cells and Sweat glands
(3) Sebaceous glands and paneth cells
(4) Paneth cells and goblet cells

64) Ependymal epithelium is present in :-

(1) Brain & Spinal cord

(2) Brain & Heart
(3) Heart & Kidney
(4) Spinal cord & intestine

65)
Ducts of pancrease and salivary gland are lined by

(1) simple squamous

(2) Simple cuboidal
(3) Stratified cuboidal
(4) Simple columnar

66) Assertion : Pancreas is a Heterocrine gland.

Reason : Pancreas has endocrine part as well as exocrine part.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false
(4) Assertion is false, but reason is true

67) Which type of tissue forms glands ?

(1) Epithelial
(2) Nervous
(3) Muscular
(4) Connective

68) Fibroblast cell is a connective tissue cell, the function of which is :-

(1) Phagocytic
(2) Absorption
(3) Antibody production
(4) Matrix production

69) The function of Connective tissue is :

(1) To hold other tissues together, link and support tissues or organs in the body.
(2) To facilitate diffusion
(3) Protection
(4) Absorption and secretion

70) The cells of connective tissue concerned with the secretion of histamine, serotonin & heparin is
:-

(1) Fibroblast cells

(2) Macrophages
(3) Adipose cells
(4) Mast cells

71)

Which tissue form diffusion boundary?

(1) Simple squamous epithelium.
(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) All of these

72) Which of the following tissue are modified for storage of fat ?

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Cartilage
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Adipose tissue

73) Which of the following cell of connective tissue secretes antibodies :-

(1) Mast cell

(2) Reticular cell
(3) Adipocyte cell
(4) Lymphocyte

74) Which of the following fibre provide strength to the tissue ?

(1) Collagen fibres

(2) Elastin fibres
(3) Reticulin fibres
(4) Yellow fibres

75)

Connective tissue represents different functions except :-

(1) Linking body structures

(2) Support to body
(3) Highest regeneration power
(4) O2 and CO2 transportation

76) In all connective tissues cells secrete fibre of structural protein except :

(1) Bone
(2) Blood
(3) Cartilage
(4) All of the above

77) Which of the following are the three basic components of all type of connective tissues except
blood ?

(1) Cells, fibres and ground substances

(2) Fibroblast, reticular fibres and collagen
(3) Mast cells, lymphocytes and adipocyte
(4) Arteries, veins and capillaries

78) Which connective tissue is found in the wall of Lung's alveoli ?

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Compound epithelium
(3) Yellow fibrous connective tissue
(4) All of the above

79) Assertion :- Connective tissues are named because of their special function of linking and
supporting.
Reason :- Connective tissue provide linking and supporting other tissues/organ of the body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

80) Which of the following cells of connective tissue are also known as 'cart wheel cells' ?

(1) Lymphocytes
(2) Plasma cells
(3) Mesenchymal cells
(4) Macrophages

81) Collagen fibres are :-

(1) Wavy, branched and arranged in bundles

(2) Straight, unbranched and single
(3) Wavy, unbranched and arranged in bundles
(4) Wavy, branched and single

82) The main function of Tendon is :–

(1) Joining of muscles

(2) Joining of muscle to bone
(3) Joining of two bones
(4) Joining muscles to internal organs

83) Label the diagram given below:

(1) A: Macrophage, B: Fibroblast
(2) C: Elastic Fibres, D: Mast Cell
(3) A: Mast Cells, D: Macrophage
(4) B: Fibroblast, C: Reticular fibres

84) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Tendon (i) Bone to bone

(b) Adipose tissue (ii) Compound epithelium

(c) Pharynx (iii) Skeletal muscle to bone

(d) Ligament (iv) Beneath the skin

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

85) Which is the strongest cartilage of the body?

(1) White fibrous cartilage

(2) Elastic cartilage.
(3) Calcified cartilage
(4) Hyaline cartilage.

86)

Covering of bone is called as :

(1) Periosteum
(2) Endosteum
(3) Matrix
(4) Cancellated bone

87) The bone cells (Osteocytes) are present in the space called

(1) Lamillae
(2) Lacunae
(3) Matrix
(4) Intercellular space

88) Bone act as a reservoir for which of the following elements ?

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Calcium
(3) Carbon
(4) Hydrogen

89)

Matrix of cartilage is secreted by :-

(1) Chondroclasts
(2) Chondroblasts
(3) Osteocytes
(4) Histiocytes

90) Identify the diagram :

(1) Bone
(2) Cartilage
(3) Bone marrow
(4) Blood
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 3 3 4 4 3 2 2 3 3 4 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 3 3 1 4 1 2 3 2 2 4 3 2 4 1 2 3 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 1 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 2 4 1 2 2 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 3 4 2 1 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 3 4 3 1 4 2 1 1 3 1 4 1 4 4 3 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 3 2 2 3 3 4 2 2 2 4 4 4 2 3 3 2 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 1 3 2 2 3 1 1 1 4 2 1 2 1 1 3 3 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 4 4 2 4 4 2 3 3 3 4 4 3 4 4 2 2 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 4 1 3 1 1 4 1 4 1 4 4 1 3 2 1 3 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 2x2 – 7x + 5 = 0 2x2 – 2x – 5x + 5 = 0
2x(x – 1) – 5 (x – 1) = 0
(x – 1) (2x – 5)

x = 1 and x =

2)

Question Explanation:

The problem gives an ellipse equation I and asks for the coordinates of two points
(A and B) where the ellipse intersects the axes.

Concept :
Coordinate geometry

Formula Used:
The general form of the ellipse equation is:

Where a is the semi-major axis and b is the semi-minor axis. Coordinates of points are found by
substituting a: x = 0 or y = 0 for axis intersections.

Calculation :
For the given equation, a2 = 9 (so a = 3) and b2 = 25 (so b = 5).
• For Point A (on the x-axis), set y = 0:

⇒x=
Thus, A = (3, 0).
• For Point B (on the y-axis), set x = 0:

Thus, B - (0, 5).

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: (3, 0) & (0, 5).

3 3
3) (1.002) = (1 + 0.002)
By binomial theorem
= [1 + 3(0.002)]
= 1.006
4)

Ans.

5) Explanation :- We are asked to find the value of sin 15° using trigonometric identities. This
requires using the angle subtraction identity to simplify the expression.
Concept :- trigonometric identities
Formula used :- sin(A – B) = sin A cos B – cos A sin B
For A = 45° and B = 30°, the formula becomes:
sin(15°) = sin(45° – 30°)

Calculation :- we know the values:

Substitude into the formula :- sin(45°) =

simplify:
Thus, the correct answer is Option 1

6) Question Explanation:

We are asked to convert radians to degrees. This requires applying the standard conversion
factor between radians and degrees.
Concept Based'
This question deals with Radian to Degree Conversion.
Formula Used'
To convert from radians to degrees, the formula is:

Degrees Radians
Calculation :

Substitute radians into the conversion formula:

Degrees =

Degrees =
Final Answer:
The correct answer is
Option 4:108°.

7) (1) Asking About

 We are tasked with finding the arc length (S) of a circle, given the radius (R) and the central
angle (θ)

(2) Concept
The formula for the arc length of a circle is:

Here:
• θ is the central angle in degrees.
• R is the radius of the circle.

(3) Formula

(4) Solution/ Explanation

Substitute the given values:

Simplify:

S = 6πm

(5) Final Answer

The arc length S is π m.
Correct Option: 3. 6 π m

8)

Question explanation
Let's solve sin(-30°) + cos( -30°) step by step.

Concept: Properties of negative angles

Formula:

A. Sine of negative angles: sin( -θ) = - sin (θ).

B. Cosine of negative angles: cos(-θ) = cos(θ).

Calculation
1. Use the properties of negative angles

sin(-30°) = -sin (30°) = .

cos(-30°) = cos(30°) =

⇒ sin(-30°) + cos(-30°) =

⇒ sin(-30°) + cos(-30°) =
Correct Option : 2
Final Answer:

9)

–tan(–30º)
= –[–tan30º]

= tan30º =

10) cos215° – sin215°

cos2θ = cos2θ – sin2θ
∴ cos215° – sin215°
= cos30°
=

11)

choose options according to Range.

12)

Let α = 37º

Slope angle ⇒ θ = 180º – α

θ = 180º – 37º
θ = 143º
Intercept on y-axis = 10
Slope = tan θ = tan 143º
= tan (180º – 37º)
slope = – tan 37º

slope =

13)

slope of straight line =

slope of straight line =

14)

Area =
=

=–
= –[0 – 1] = 1

15)

slope = m =

16)
– 3x – 5y = 15
5y = – 3x – 15

y=

Here :- c = –3

17)

y = 2x3 – 12x2 + 36

For maxima or minima :-

6x2 – 24 x = 0
6x(x – 4) = 0
x = 0 and x = 4

at x = 0 ⇒ = – 24 < 0 → maxima

at x = 4 ⇒ = 24 > 0 → minima
18) =

At A2, = 0 so =0

19)

x=

At x = , y is minimum

ymin =

20) Explain - find

Concept - Differentation
Formula

Calculation

21) 1. Asking About:

The question is asking for the slope of the graph of the equation y − x at a specific point, when
x = 2.
2. Concept:
The slope of a graph at any point is the rate of change of the function at that point. This is

calculated by taking the derivative of the function with respect to x (denoted as ), which
gives us the slope of the tangent to the graph at any point.
3. Formula:

Slope =
4. Solution / Explanation:
The given equation is y = 4x2 + 5.
To find the slope of the graph at any point, first differentiate y with respect to x:

Put x = 2 gives slope = 16

5. Final Answer:
The slope of the graph at x = 2 is 16. Therefore, the correct option is Option 2.
22) S = 3t3 – 2t2 + 2t – 7

23)

By chain rule

24)

= 8 + (1 – (–1))
= 8 + 2 = 10

25)

Let y = 5sinθ – 12 cosθ

Compare with asinθ + bcosθ,
Maximum value =

= =13

26)

27)

Concept:
Quadrants and Signs: The sine function is positive in the first and second quadrants and
negative in the third and fourth quadrants.
Mathematical Calculation:
1. Locate 300°: An angle of 300° lies in the fourth quadrant.
2. Find the reference angle: The reference angle for 300° is 360° - 300° = 60°.
3. Determine the sign: Since 300° is in the fourth quadrant, where the sine function is
negative, sin(300°) will be negative.
4. Evaluate: We know that sin(60°) = √3/2. Therefore, sin(300°) = sin(360-60°) = -sin(60°)= -
√3/2
Final Answer:

The value of sin(300°) is

option 1
Question Level: Easy

28)

sin 1° = sin
for angle to be small

29)

Concept Based:

This equation represents a circle. By simplifying the equation, we can check if it matches the
standard forms of a circle's equation x2 + y2 = r2.

Formula Used:

The standard equation for a circle x2 + y2 = r2.

Calculation:

Given 4x2 + 4y2 = 16, divide both sides by 4:

x2 + y2 = 4
This is the standard form of the equation of a circle with radius r = 2, centered at the origin.
Thus, the graph of the given equation is a circle with radius 2, cetered at the origin.

30) (ex cosx)

= ex (cosx) + cosx. (ex)

= ex (–sinx) + cosx(ex)
= ex (cosx – sinx)

31)

y = 2×3–15x2+36×+11
x=2,3

at x = 2; Maxima

at x= 3; =+6 > 0 ; Minima

max value ;
at x = 2 y = 2×8-1554+72+11
y = 39
min. value
at x = 3 ; y = 2×27-15×9+36×3+11
y = 38

32) 1. Question Explanation :

We are asked to evaluate the integral of cos(5x – 3)dx and find the correct result among the
given options.
2. Concept used :
trigonometric function with a linear expression inside the cosine function.
3. Formula Used :
The integral of cos(ax + b) dx is given by :

where a is the coefficient of x inside the cosine, and b is a constant.

4. Calculation :
Comparing with the standard from :
Here α = 5, b = –3
Applying the formula:

Final Answer :

Option (4) :

33) First integration of function x3 + x2 + x + 1 and then differentiation, we get same function.

34)

<v>=

35) F = = Gm1m2
F=C×
↓ ↓ ↓
y = c x ⇒ straight line

36)
For one hour angle between hour hand and minute hand = 30°.

37)

Given
Area of circle A = πr2

=
when r = 1 cm

= 0.4π cm2/s

38)

39)

40) ⇒

41) cos 4θ = cos22θ – sin22θ

 cos 4θ = 2 cos2 2θ – 1

=
= 2 cos θ.

42)

4 – 2cosθ
⇒ – 1 ≤ cosθ ≤ 1
Here
For maximum value
use (cosθ = –1)
⇒ 4 – 2 (–1) = 6
For minimum value
use (cosθ = 1)
⇒ 4 – 2(1) ⇒ 2

43)

Conceptual.

44) 1. Explanation (30 words):

We are asked to describe the graph of the equation xy = 2 This equation represents a
hyperbola. To understand it better, we analyze its structure and behavior.
2. Concept (20 words):
The equation xy = 2 represents a rectangular hyperbola, which has two branches and
asymptotes along the coordinate axes.
3. Formula:
The equation xy = 2 can be rewritten as:

This is the standard form of a rectangular hyperbola.

45)

Area of ellipse =
a = 5, b = 3

CHEMISTRY

46) Explanation :- not isoelectronic with the oxide ion (O²⁻).

Concept:- isoelectronic electron mean same no. of electron

 Solution:

A. O²⁻ = 8+2=10

A. N³⁻ = (7 + 3 = 10).

B. Na⁺ = (11 - 1 = 10).

C. F⁻ = (9 + 1 = 10).

D. Ti⁺ = (22 - 1 = 21).

Final Answer : Option (4) :

47) EXPLANATION: Carbon (C) and Silicon (Si) with atomic masses is given and ratio of
neutrons is to be found.
GIVEN DATA: Carbon (C) and Silicon (Si) with atomic masses 12 and 28 respectively.
CONCEPT: Neutrons (N): The number of neutrons in an atom is given by the difference
between the atomic mass and the atomic number.
N=A-Z
Where : N is the number of neutrons,
A is the atomic mass (or mass number),
Z is the atomic number.
CALCULATION :
number of neutrons in Carbon (C): N = A - Z = 12 - 6 = 6
number of neutrons in silicon (Si): N = A - Z = 28 - 14 = 14
Calculate the ratio of neutrons in Carbon and Silicon:
Ratio = 6 : 14 = 3 : 7
FINAL ANSWER : Ratio = 3 : 7
CORRECT OPTION: 3

48)

Question Explanation:
The question asks which electron, defined by its quantum numbers, has the least energy.

Concept:
n + l rule

Explanation:
Let's calculate the (n+l) values for each option:

A. n = 3, l = 2: n + l = 3 + 2 = 5

B. n = 4, l = 0: n + l = 4 + 0 = 4
 C. n = 4, l = 1: n + l = 4 + 1 = 5

D. n = 5, l = 0: n + l = 5 + 0 = 5

Comparing the 'n' values:

A. Option 1 has n=3.

B. Option 2 and 3 have n=4.

C. Option 4 has n=5.

The lowest 'n' value is 3. So option 1 has the lowest n.

Comparing (n+l) values:

A. Option 1: 5

B. Option 2: 4

C. Option 3: 5

D. Option 4: 5

The lowest (n+l) is 4. So option 2 has the lowest (n+l).

Since option 2 has the lowest (n+l) value, option 2 has the least energy.

Final Answer

The electron associated with the least energy is the one with n = 4 and l = 0.

Correct Option: (2)

49)

Mn2+ = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5

50)

Ans. : 4
51)

Ans : 18

52)

Ans. : 3d

53)

Ans. : 3Pz

54)

Magnetic quantum number

55)

Ans. : 16

56)

Ans. : 26

57)

Ans. : Cu, Cr

58)

Ans. :

59) Unpaired electron of Cl atom is 3p1 for which n = 3,

ℓ = 1, m = –1, 0 or + 1 and s =

60)

Mass no. = 14
No. of e– = 10
No. of P = 10 – 3 = 7
So, anion is
So, no. of n = 14 – 7 = 7
 61)

Ans. : 10

62)

n = 1, ℓ = 2

63)

Ans. : [Ar]3d54s1

64)

Ans. :

65)

Angular momentum =

66)

Average Atomic weight

= = 85.5

67) Question Explanation:

The question asks which principle explains the presence of three unpaired electrons in a
nitrogen atom.
Concept: Elecrton Fillings.
Analysis:

A. Nitrogen (N): Atomic number 7, electron configuration 1s² 2s² 2p³.

B. 2p Subshell: The 2p subshell has three orbitals (2px, 2py, 2pz).
C. Hund's Rule: States that electrons will individually occupy orbitals within a subshell before
pairing up in any one orbital. This maximizes the total spin.
D. Pauli's Exclusion Principle: States that no two electrons can have the same set of four
quantum numbers.
E. Aufbau Principle: States that electrons fill atomic orbitals in order of increasing energy
levels.
F. Uncertainty Principle: States that it is impossible to know both the position and momentum
of a particle with absolute certainty. 1
G. Nitrogen's 2p electrons: The three electrons in the 2p subshell will each occupy a separate
2p orbital (2px, 2py, 2pz) with parallel spins, according to Hund's rule.
H. Pauli's Exclusion Principle: Explains why each electron has a unique set of quantum
numbers, but not specifically why they are unpaired.
I. Aufbau Principle: Explains the order of filling orbitals, but not the specific distribution of
electrons within a subshell.
J. Uncertainty Principle: Is not directly related to electron configuration.

E: Final Answer

Hund's rule explains why the three electrons in the 2p subshell of nitrogen occupy separate
orbitals with parallel spins, resulting in three unpaired electrons.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (2) Hund's rule.

F: Question Level
Easy

68)

Ans. : Atomic weight v/s atomic volume

69)

Same number of neutron

70)

(a) n = 2, ℓ = 1 ⇒ 2p ⇒ (iii)
(b) n = 3, ℓ = 2 ⇒ 3d ⇒ (iv)
(c) n = 3, ℓ = 0 ⇒ 3s ⇒ (ii)
(a) n = 2, ℓ = 0 ⇒ 2s ⇒ (i)

71)

Ans. : Reduced by 25%

72)

Ans. :

73)

Ans. : Pauli's exclusion principle

74)

Ans. : 4s < 3d

75)

Properties of every 8th element was similar to the 1st element

76)

Li, Na, K follow Newland's octave rule.

77)

NCERT Pg. # 74-76

78) After Ca property of elements repeats after the interval of 18 instead of 8 elements.

79)

Ans. : A and C both

80)

Ans. : Atomic weight

81)

Anomalous pair ;
(Ar, K), (Te, I), (Co, Ni), (Th, Pa)

82)

Ans. : All

83)

U, Be, In, Au, Pt

84)

Peak position :- Alkali metals

Ascending position :- Halogens
Descending position :- Alkaline earth metals
 85)

None

86)

87)

Atomic wt. of Y = = 50

88)

Ans. : Both (2) and (3)

89)

Ans. : Water + Alcohol

90)

Ans. : an element or a compound

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XI, Pg # 1270

92)

Question Explanation:
Cell is______and______unit of life.

Solution:
The cell is both a structural and a functional unit of life.

A. As the structural unit, the cell is the basic building block of all organisms, forming the
structure of an organism.

B. As the functional unit, the cell carries out essential functions required for life, such as
energy production, metabolism, and reproduction.
Thus, the cell is both structural and functional.

Hence,
Correct Option: 3

93) NCERT Pg.#129

94)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 91

95) NCERT XI pg.# 132

96)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 131 IInd para IIIrd line

97) Function like cell growth, formation of intercellular junctions are possible due to fluid
nature of the membrane.

98) Facilitated diffusion involves participation of protein not energy.

99)

Nucleic acid does not occur in cell membrane.

100)

NCERT XI Page # 94; 2nd para

101)

Mycoplasma

102) The correct answer is: 4. Proteins ae embedded in a phospholipid bilayer

Explanation:
According to the fluid mosaic model proposed by Singer and Nicolson, the plasma membrane
consists of a fluid phospholipid bilayer with proteins embedded in it. These proteins may be
integral (spanning the membrane) or peripheral (on the surface), allowing flexibility and
selective transport.

103) NCERT XI Pg. # 93, Para–5

 104)

Phospholipid molecules of the cell membrane have:

One polar head and two non-polar tails.

A. The polar head is hydrophilic (water-attracting) and faces outward toward the aqueous
environment.
B. The two non-polar tails are hydrophobic (water-repelling) and face inward, away from the
water.

This structure is key to forming the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane, where the hydrophobic tails
are shielded from water and the hydrophilic heads interact with the surrounding aqueous
environment.
Therefore, the correct answer is: One polar head and two non-polar tails.

105) Module Pg. # 126

106)

NCERT - Pg. # 131, 8.5.1

107)

NCERT XI pg.# 132

108)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 127

109) NCERT XI Pg. # 132

110) NCERT XI Pg. # 125

111) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 126

112)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 127

113) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 129, Para–4

114)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 127

115) NCERT-P.No. : 130/8.3

 116) NCERT XIth Page No. 92

117) NCERT Pg.# 131, Fig. # 8.4

118) NCERT XI, Page # 132

119) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 131 (8.5.1)

120) NCERT Pg.# 126 para 8.3

121) XI NCERT Page. No :- 126

122) NCERT, Pg. # 126

123)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which of the given cellular components is not
present in bacteria. It provides four options: Mitochondria, DNA, Ribosome, and Cytoplasm,
and asks to identify which one bacteria do not have.

Underlying Concept: Bacteria are prokaryotic organisms, meaning they lack membrane-
bound organelles. They do have DNA, ribosomes, and cytoplasm, but they do not have
mitochondria, which are found only in eukaryotic cells.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that mitochondria are called the 'powerhouses of the cell' and
are only found in eukaryotic cells, not prokaryotes like bacteria.

Common Mistakes: Confusing bacteria with eukaryotic cells and assuming that all cellular
components are present in bacteria.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: DNA is present in bacteria as they contain their genetic
material. Ribosomes are present for protein synthesis. Cytoplasm is the fluid inside cells where
organelles reside. Only mitochondria are absent because bacteria produce energy differently.

124) NCERT-XI Pg. # 126, IIIrd para V line

125)

The correct answer is: 1. Nuclear membrane

Explanation:

A. Nuclear membrane: Eukaryotic cells have a well-defined nucleus surrounded by a nuclear

 membrane, which is absent in prokaryotic cells. Prokaryotes have a nucleoid region where
genetic material is not enclosed by a membrane.
B. Ribosome: Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells possess ribosomes, but they differ in size.
Eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S, while prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
C. Cytoplasm: Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells have cytoplasm as the site for various
cellular processes.
D. Cell membrane: Both types of cells have a cell membrane, which regulates the movement of
substances in and out of the cell.

Thus, the distinguishing feature of eukaryotic cells is the presence of a nuclear membrane

126) NCERT XI pg.# 127

127) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

128) NCERT XI Pg. # 134

129) Explaining the Question – Question asking about the structure of cell membrane.
Concept – This Question is based on Cell membrane
Solution –

Phospholipid is the main component of cell membrane because it forms a continuous

structural frame of cell membrane.

• Phospholipid layer provides fluidity to plasma membrane because

phospholipids are rich in unsaturated fatty acid.

Final Answer - 2

130)

The correct answer is : 4. Peptidoglycan

Explanation: The cell wall of prokaryotes,especially bacteria, is primarily made of

peptidoglycan (also called murein), which provides structural support and protection. Chitin
and cellulose are found in the cell walls of fungi and plants, respectively, while glucose is a
sugar, not a structural component of prokaryotic cell walls.

131) Providing structural support and protection

132)

NCERT XI Page # 91, 8.4.2

133) NCERT Pg#125

134) NCERT Page # 128, 129

135) The assertion is true as prokaryotic cells do exhibit a wide variety of shapes, which is a
well-known fact in microbiology. The reason is also true and is the correct explanation for the
assertion because despite the diversity in their shapes and functions, prokaryotic cells share a
fundamental cellular organization, which is simpler than that of eukaryotic cells.

136)

it sometimes forms middle structure part of organs

137)

Epithelial tissue

138)

Epithelium tissue

139)

Concept :
Microvilli increase surface area for greater abs

Solution/Explanation :
Microvilli increases surface area for greater absorption.

140)

Question is Asking About :

Cell Junction

Solution/Explanation :
Gap Junction - Facilate the cell to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm
of adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions small molecules and sometimes big molecules. e.g.
Neural tissue, Muscle tissue

141)

Muscular tissue

142)

Old NCERT – XI – Page no. 101

If the columnar or cuboidal cells bear cilia on their free surface they are called ciliated
epithelium . Their function is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the
epithelium. They are mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and
fallopian tubes.

143)

All three germinal layer

144)

microvilli

145) NCERT-Pg # 101 & 102

146)

No cells at all, but it is a product of epithelial cells and connective tissues

147)

The PCT in the kidneys is lined with simple cuboidal epithelium. These cells have microvilli,
which increase the surface area for reabsorption.

Let's look at the other options:

1. Epithelium of fallopian tubes: This is typically ciliated columnar epithelium.

3. Epithelium of stomach: This is simple columnar epithelium.

4. Epithelium of alveoli: This is simple squamous epithelium.

The correct answer is 2. Epithelium of PCT.

148)

Mucopolysaccharides

149)

Urinary bladder

150)

Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion

151)

Ans. : 3
152)

Ans. : Cover the dry surface of the skin

153)

Ans. : Paneth cells and goblet cells

154)

Brain & Spinal cord

155)

Ans. : Stratified cuboidal

156)

Assertion - Pancreas is heterocrine gland - true

Reason - Pancreas has endocrine as well as exocrine part - True

157) NCERT XI Pg. # 102

158)

Matrix production

159)

NCERT XI _ Pg.102

160) Module-5, Pg. # 99

161) NCERT XI (E)Pg.# 103, para 2

162) NCERT XIth Pg.#103

163)

Lymphocyte

164) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 103

165)

Highest regeneration power

166)

Ans. : Blood

167)

Cells, fibres and ground substances

168)

Yellow fibrous connective tissue

169) NCERT XI, Page # 102

170)

Plasma cells

171)

Wavy, unbranched and arranged in bundles

172)

Joining of muscle to bone

173)

A: Macrophage, B: Fibroblast

174) NCERT Page no 104 & 105.

175)

White fibrous cartilage

176)

Periosteum
177) NCERT XI Page # 104

178) NCERT (XI) Pg # 104

179)

Chondroblasts

180)

Ans. : Bone